[B-Greek] John 1:18 / Acts 15:14
Jason Kerrigan
jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Tue Aug 22 23:53:13 EDT 2006
I have to say that I don't see the relevence of whether
or not John 1:18 was spoken by the apostle John or
John the Baptist. I think I misunderstood a comment
made regarding direct/indirect discourse functioning
as the object of EXHGHSATO that was made in previuos
posts.
In Acts 15:14 we see that the oject of EXHGHSATO
is KAQWS O QEOS EPESKEPSATO ....
One member of the list said that this could be INdirect
discourse. And O QEOS is able to be in the nominative
because the entire clause being declared functions as
the object of EXHGHSATO (thanks Harold). If the clause
were reduced from KATHWS O QEOS _______ to simply
QEOS (showing that the indirect discourse topic declared
by the MONOGENES is simply QEOS rather than KAQWS
O QEOS____) then based on the same principles couldn't
QEOS in John 1:18, functioning as an independent
substantive, be the indirect discourse topic although QEOS
is in the nominative (as in Acts 15:14).
I am really trying guys,
Be nice,
Jason Kerrigan
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