[B-Greek] John 1:18 / Acts 15:14

Jason Kerrigan jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Tue Aug 22 23:53:13 EDT 2006


I have to say that I don't see the relevence of whether 
  or not John 1:18 was spoken by the apostle John or
  John the Baptist. I think I misunderstood a comment 
  made regarding direct/indirect discourse functioning
  as the object of EXHGHSATO that was made in previuos 
  posts. 
   
  In Acts 15:14 we see that the oject of EXHGHSATO
  is KAQWS O QEOS EPESKEPSATO ....
   
  One member of the list said that this could be INdirect
  discourse. And O QEOS is able to be in the nominative
  because the entire clause being declared functions as 
  the object of EXHGHSATO (thanks Harold). If the clause 
  were reduced from KATHWS O QEOS _______ to simply 
  QEOS (showing that the indirect discourse topic declared 
  by the MONOGENES is simply QEOS rather than KAQWS 
  O QEOS____) then based on the same principles couldn't 
  QEOS in John 1:18, functioning as an independent 
  substantive, be the indirect discourse topic although QEOS 
  is in the nominative (as in Acts 15:14).
   
  I am really trying guys, 
  Be nice,
  Jason Kerrigan

 			
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