[B-Greek] John 1:18 / Acts 15:14

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Aug 23 22:17:15 EDT 2006


Let's just say at the moment that you're being rather obtuse.  I have no idea what you mean.
   
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Jason Kerrigan <jasonandshon at yahoo.com> wrote:
  I have to say that I don't see the relevence of whether 
or not John 1:18 was spoken by the apostle John or
John the Baptist. I think I misunderstood a comment 
made regarding direct/indirect discourse functioning
as the object of EXHGHSATO that was made in previuos 
posts. 

In Acts 15:14 we see that the oject of EXHGHSATO
is KAQWS O QEOS EPESKEPSATO ....

One member of the list said that this could be INdirect
discourse. And O QEOS is able to be in the nominative
because the entire clause being declared functions as 
the object of EXHGHSATO (thanks Harold). If the clause 
were reduced from KATHWS O QEOS _______ to simply 
QEOS (showing that the indirect discourse topic declared 
by the MONOGENES is simply QEOS rather than KAQWS 
O QEOS____) then based on the same principles couldn't 
QEOS in John 1:18, functioning as an independent 
substantive, be the indirect discourse topic although QEOS 
is in the nominative (as in Acts 15:14).

I am really trying guys, 
Be nice,
Jason Kerrigan


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george
gfsomsel
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