[B-Greek] accusative form , masculine

Benjamin Pehrson benjamin_pehrson at sil.org
Mon Aug 28 22:17:58 EDT 2006


I see that M. Wise says that NAZWRAIOS is apparently a gentilic adjective
meaning that it is an adjective derived from a proper noun (i.e.
"American"). I'm copying his entry on "Nazarene" from Dictionary of Jesus
and the Gospels to Eva offline as it has quite a full explanation of the
problem and includes further bibliography.

Benjamin Pehrson

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-
> bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Benjamin Pehrson
> Sent: Monday, August 28, 2006 6:59 PM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] accusative form , masculine
> 
> Why would we label NAZWRAION an adjective and not a noun? Isn't it the
> noun
> Nazarene, in which case it would be an accusative noun in apposition (and
> agreement) to the accusative IHSOUN? Although many note the difficult
> derivation from NAZARET to NAZWRAIS and that NAZWRAIS has a prior meaning,
> it is clear that the personal designation was able to be made on the basis
> of the town (see Mt. 2.23). I don't think this has anything to do with an
> adjective conforming to the gender of the noun, although we would not be
> surprised to see a woman from a given town designated with a feminine form
> of the root.
> 
> Benjamin Pehrson
> 
> 
> 
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-
> > bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Carl W. Conrad
> > Sent: Monday, August 28, 2006 6:31 PM
> > To: Eve Ritsema
> > Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> > Subject: Re: [B-Greek] accusative form , masculine
> >
> >
> > On Monday, August 28, 2006, at 05:31PM, Eve Ritsema
> > <thebodyofjesusthenazoraion at juno.com> wrote:
> >
> > John 18:5, 18:7, Acts 2:22
> >
> > TOV IESOUS NAZORAION is translated Jesus of Nazareth. Nazareth is in the
> > Masculine form in the above version  not the feminine form as in Matt
> > 4:13, Luke 4:16 or the other 6 times it is in feminine form Mt, Lk ACTs.
> > My question is how can it be of  NAZORAION, and not The NAZORAION if it
> is
> > in the Masculine form?
> >
> > Actually the text in John 18:5 and 18:7 reads IHSOUN TON NAZWRAION, the
> > proper noun, the article and the adjective all in the accusative,
> properly
> > so, as direct objects of the verb ZHTEITE carried forward. In Acts 2:22
> it
> > is the object of the delayed verb ANEILATE.
> >
> > I think your problem lies in not realizing that NAZWRAION is not a noun
> > but an adjective "of/from Nazareth" and that it is masculine because it
> > must agree with the masculine expression, IHSOUN.
> >
> >
> > Carl W. Conrad
> > Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
> > 1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
> > cwconrad2 at mac.com
> > WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
> > ---
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> 
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