[B-Greek] A curiousity-how to read when against the grain?
frjsilver at optonline.net
frjsilver at optonline.net
Sat Dec 2 20:41:06 EST 2006
Dear Friends --
Just for the sake of contrast and comparison, the 'official' NT text of the Church of Greece has HLI HLI LIMA SABACQANI, perfectly reflected (at least phonetically) by the Church Slavonic _ili ili lima savakhthani_.
This is only slightly different from the liturgical gospel book, which reads HLI HLI LAMA SABACQANI.
The Vulgata Latina presents 'Heli Heli lema sabacthani.' This suggests that St Jerome might have seen a LHMA form in some Greek text; he would not have rendered H as I, no matter how it was actually pronounced in his day.
David Stern's 'Jewish New Testament' takes care to present Hebrew and Aramaic forms in transliteration as closely as possible to the sounds of their original languages, and he gives us 'Eli! Eli! L'mah sh'vaktani!'
I suppose the point of all these comparisons is merely that the transcription SABACQANEI and its emendation to SABACQANI indicates that EI and I were aurally indistinguishable in first-century AD Greek.
This sort of itacism reinforces what I wrote you earlier, that a (largely) Modern Greek pronunciation of NT Greek is widely attestable in Hellenistic and later palaiography, whether on papyrus or in stone.
Peace and blessings to all.
Father James Silver
Monk James
Orthodox Church in America
----- Original Message -----
From: Randall Buth
Date: Friday, December 1, 2006 6:17 am
Subject: [B-Greek] A curiousity-how to read when against the grain?
To: "B-Greek at Lists. Org"
> A curiousity has arisen for me in the last spate of discussions on
> KOINH PROFORA --
>
> Exactly what do people do and how do people read
> when they encounter a text like Matthew 27:46
> HLEI HLEI LAMA SABAXQANEI? (e.g. 'Theta' and Caesarean)
>
> How would they read that if it were printed in their Greek NT?
>
> What would happen if they thought that that is how Matthew
> spelled it?
> This question ought to be pretty interesting on this list.
>
> Finally, (partially a TC question, but more language oriented
> than TC)
> Why has Westcott and Hort's SABAXQANEI been changed to SABAXQANI
> in NestleAland?
> Is there any ground for arguing that NA are iimposing 'their language'
> over manuscripts on this point? How do people feel about it, if so?
>
> [[the first part of WH's Mt27:46 "ELWI ELWI" is based on a harmonistic
> reading of the Alexandrian texts with Mark. NA and UBS follow
> the more
> difficult,
> different texts HLEI HLEI//HLI HLI, though again, NA and UBS do
> not follow the
> old uncials that read HLEI. The issue for this list is not ELWI
> versus HLEI,
> but how do people read HLEI and how do they feel about it
> possibly being
> changed into HLI in their printed texts? Discussion can be
> limited to
> SABAXQANEI above, since that is the same issue and will not lead to
> misunderstandings or side issues about textual matters.]]
>
> Hopefully, the above is clear enough to get answers to the curiousity.
> How do people read WH's SABAXQANEI? How do they deal with it?
> Would it change if they thought it were original to the New Testament?
>
> PS: this is a real question for me, it is not a rhetorical question.
>
> ERRWSQE
> Randall Buth
>
>
> --
> Randall Buth, PhD
> www.biblicalulpan.org
> χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη
> שלום לכם וברכות
> ybitan at mscc.huji.ac.il
> randallbuth at gmail.com
> ---
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