[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?

Awohili at aol.com Awohili at aol.com
Wed Feb 22 23:14:06 EST 2006


 
 
I seem to recall that this has been discussed several times and should  be 
archived.  Perhaps you might check the archives.
 
But if you want "opinions" on the matter, I am sure some will be  forthcoming.
 
Solomon Landers

 
 
In a message dated 02/22/2006 6:07:55 P.M. Pacific Standard Time,  
g_gardner1234 at yahoo.com writes:

In The New  World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows:


Joh 1:1  In  [the]  beginning the  Word was,  and the Word was with God,  and 
the Word was a  god.

The reason for the rendering of “a god” is  explained
in part by the following:


The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of  the·os´ 
(God) but not before the second.

I would  like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of this  
rendering.

Thanks

Gene  Gardner









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