[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
Awohili at aol.com
Awohili at aol.com
Wed Feb 22 23:14:06 EST 2006
I seem to recall that this has been discussed several times and should be
archived. Perhaps you might check the archives.
But if you want "opinions" on the matter, I am sure some will be forthcoming.
Solomon Landers
In a message dated 02/22/2006 6:07:55 P.M. Pacific Standard Time,
g_gardner1234 at yahoo.com writes:
In The New World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows:
Joh 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and
the Word was a god.
The reason for the rendering of “a god” is explained
in part by the following:
The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of the·os´
(God) but not before the second.
I would like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of this
rendering.
Thanks
Gene Gardner
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