[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Thu Feb 23 12:29:44 EST 2006
If the reason that they are making Jn 1:1c indefinite is because it lacks an article, then I would say that is bad Greek grammar.
For one can look at 2 Cor 5:19 and see QEOS lacks the artice, but it is clearly referring to the Father.
hWS hOTI QEOS HN EN CRISTWi KOSMON KATALASWN.....
So I don't think one can argue based upon the article alone that Jn 1:1c should be rendered indefinite.
--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
> >From: Gene Gardner
> >To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> >Subject: [B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
> >Date: Wed, 22 Feb 2006 18:07:36 -0800 (PST)
> >
> >In The New World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows:
> >
> >
> > Joh 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God,
> >and the Word was a god.
> >
> > The reason for the rendering of a god is explained
> > in part by the following:
> >
> >
> > The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of
> >the·os´ (God) but not before the second.
> >
> > I would like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of
> >this rendering.
> >
> > Thanks
> >
> > Gene Gardner
> >
> >
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