[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Thu Feb 23 12:29:44 EST 2006


If the reason that they are making Jn 1:1c indefinite is because it lacks an article, then I would say that is bad Greek grammar.

For one can look at 2 Cor 5:19 and see QEOS lacks the artice, but it is clearly referring to the Father.

hWS hOTI QEOS HN EN CRISTWi KOSMON KATALASWN.....

So I don't think one can argue based upon the article alone that Jn 1:1c should be rendered indefinite.  


--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

> >From: Gene Gardner 
> >To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org 
> >Subject: [B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek? 
> >Date: Wed, 22 Feb 2006 18:07:36 -0800 (PST) 
> > 
> >In The New World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows: 
> > 
> > 
> > Joh 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, 
> >and the Word was a god. 
> > 
> > The reason for the rendering of “a god” is explained 
> > in part by the following: 
> > 
> > 
> > The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of 
> >the·os´ (God) but not before the second. 
> > 
> > I would like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of 
> >this rendering. 
> > 
> > Thanks 
> > 
> > Gene Gardner 
> > 
> > 
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