[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Feb 23 13:19:24 EST 2006
Here QEOS is (a) subject of the sentence, (b) pretty clearly being
used as a proper noun. QEOS in John 1:1c is a predicate nominative,
as hO LOGOS is clearly the subject of the sentence.
On Feb 23, 2006, at 12:29 PM, kgraham0938 at comcast.net wrote:
> If the reason that they are making Jn 1:1c indefinite is because it
> lacks an article, then I would say that is bad Greek grammar.
>
> For one can look at 2 Cor 5:19 and see QEOS lacks the artice, but
> it is clearly referring to the Father.
>
> hWS hOTI QEOS HN EN CRISTWi KOSMON KATALASWN.....
>
> So I don't think one can argue based upon the article alone that Jn
> 1:1c should be rendered indefinite.
>
>
> --
> Kelton Graham
> KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
>
>>> From: Gene Gardner
>>> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>>> Subject: [B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
>>> Date: Wed, 22 Feb 2006 18:07:36 -0800 (PST)
>>>
>>> In The New World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows:
>>>
>>>
>>> Joh 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God,
>>> and the Word was a god.
>>>
>>> The reason for the rendering of “a god” is explained
>>> in part by the following:
>>>
>>>
>>> The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of
>>> the·os´ (God) but not before the second.
>>>
>>> I would like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of
>>> this rendering.
>>>
>>> Thanks
>>>
>>> Gene Gardner
>>>
>>>
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Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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