[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?

Awohili at aol.com Awohili at aol.com
Thu Feb 23 14:29:39 EST 2006


In a message dated 02/23/2006 10:00:42 A.M. Pacific Standard Time,  
hholmyard at ont.com writes:

So, the use  of the indefinite article in  the Sahidic does not 
necessarily mean  that the Coptic translator  understood John to have 
written "a  god."  He was not  equating the Word with the proper name 
God,  but he could have understood  John to be using theos in a 
qualitative  sense, as many Greek  scholars have argued.  Dr. Layton 
says it  is up to the reader to  decide, but is there any indication 
in the  immediate context to help us?
 
True, the Coptic translator(s) "could have understood" a qualitative sense  
at John 1:1, but that cannot be said definitely on the basis of the  grammar.  
What the translator did do, apparently, was to faithfully  translate what he 
saw in the Greek of John 1:1c.   He "could  have" made an interpretive 
paraphrase at John 1:18 instead of a  translation, or even "could have" had two of the 
existing textual variants  in mind, one reading MONOGENHS QEOS and another 
reading MONOGENHS hUIOS.   Or even other possibilities.
 
As for a qualitative sense in the Greek, this is a reading some Greek  
scholars favor, while others do not.  It may be noted that the NWT  Committee was 
not adverse to a qualitative rendering of John 1:1c, as in  "the Word was 
Divine."  (NWT Reference Bible Appendix, 6A, page 1579)
 
It is of note that the same Coptic construction found  at John 1:1c  is also 
at the Sahidic Coptic version of John  18:40.  At John 1:1c, we have (the 
Word) *neunoute pe*.  At John 18:40  we have (Barabbas) *neusoone pe.*  I don't 
know of anyone who would  hesitate to translate this as "(Barabbas) was a 
robber."   In the  Greek, "robber," LHSTHS, is anarthrous, and the Coptic employs 
the indefinite  article.  So, is the difference in translation does not appear 
to be one of  grammar and syntax.
 
Best regards,
 
Solomon Landers








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