[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
Austin Alexander
austinjalexander at gmail.com
Thu Feb 23 15:51:35 EST 2006
Gene,
As many have undoubtedly suggested before (among other things), check out
Wallace's delightfully concise discussion on the matter in his Greek Grammar
Beyond the Basics pp. 266-269.
I follow Wallace's conclusion to be the most appropriate (i.e. taking QEOS
in Jn. 1:1c as "qualitative," the concept of which the NEB, REB, and NET all
attempt to convey).
Hope that helps,
Austin
--
Austin J Alexander
Senior Undergraduate Religion Major
Charleston Southern University
SCBC BCM President/CSU BCM President
Desk Phone: 843-574-5859
Office Phone: 843-863-7192
Email: austinjalexander at gmail.com
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Member of Summit Church (SBC)
>
>
> Message: 3
> Date: Wed, 22 Feb 2006 18:07:36 -0800 (PST)
> From: Gene Gardner <g_gardner1234 at yahoo.com>
> Subject: [B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Message-ID: <20060223020736.97456.qmail at web33912.mail.mud.yahoo.com>
> Content-Type: text/plain; charset=iso-8859-1
>
> In The New World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows:
>
>
> Joh 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with
> God, and the Word was a god.
>
> The reason for the rendering of ?a god? is explained
> in part by the following:
>
>
> The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of
> the?os? (God) but not before the second.
>
> I would like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of
> this rendering.
>
> Thanks
>
> Gene Gardner
>
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