[B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
Mondo Pascal
mondofive at hotmail.com
Thu Feb 23 18:38:50 EST 2006
Austin,
I am not all that fond of Wallace's treatment of the subject due to his
methodology. On the indefinite rendering he first makes use of Countess,
which is not a grammatical work, but an apologetic one. Countess makes a
number of errors that Wallace repeats, seemingly viewing the indefinite
argument as based upon the simple lack of the article, thus meaning that all
texts without the article should be indefinite. This is not the argument
and so it is truly a straw man.
Wallace further makes use of Dixon's study, which if I remember correctly,
also leaned heavily in the direction of an apologetic work, though that was
in theory not his aim. When one, knowingly or not, has one's work lean in
an apologetic direction, the data that they come up with tends to be skewed.
It has been a while since I have read his study, but if memory serves me
correctly, he discussed John 1:1 more than any other text. This, to me
anyway, demonstrates what he was looking to get at in his study. Further
though, his data was based on how he viewed the texts in view, which in
itself makes the results questionable.
Finally, on his view of the passage as qualitative, we find that he leans
heavily on his own theology, especially when we consider what he discusses
that the text means based upon various translations.
So grammatically, I do not put a lot of confidence in his work on this text.
It was very much colored by his theology.
Mondo Pascal
>From: "Austin Alexander" <austinjalexander at gmail.com>
>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: Re: [B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
>Date: Thu, 23 Feb 2006 15:51:35 -0500
>
>Gene,
>
>As many have undoubtedly suggested before (among other things), check out
>Wallace's delightfully concise discussion on the matter in his Greek
>Grammar
>Beyond the Basics pp. 266-269.
>
>I follow Wallace's conclusion to be the most appropriate (i.e. taking QEOS
>in Jn. 1:1c as "qualitative," the concept of which the NEB, REB, and NET
>all
>attempt to convey).
>
>Hope that helps,
>
>Austin
>--
>Austin J Alexander
>Senior Undergraduate Religion Major
>Charleston Southern University
>SCBC BCM President/CSU BCM President
>Desk Phone: 843-574-5859
>Office Phone: 843-863-7192
>Email: austinjalexander at gmail.com
>Web Address: http://austinjalexander.tripod.com
>Member of Summit Church (SBC)
> >
> >
> > Message: 3
> > Date: Wed, 22 Feb 2006 18:07:36 -0800 (PST)
> > From: Gene Gardner <g_gardner1234 at yahoo.com>
> > Subject: [B-Greek] NWT: Is it an accurate translation of the Greek?
> > To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> > Message-ID: <20060223020736.97456.qmail at web33912.mail.mud.yahoo.com>
> > Content-Type: text/plain; charset=iso-8859-1
> >
> > In The New World Translation, John 1:1 is rendered as follows:
> >
> >
> > Joh 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with
> > God, and the Word was a god.
> >
> > The reason for the rendering of ?a god? is explained
> > in part by the following:
> >
> >
> > The definite article (the) appears before the first occurrence of
> > the?os? (God) but not before the second.
> >
> > I would like to hear the opinions of the forum as to the accuracy of
> > this rendering.
> >
> > Thanks
> >
> > Gene Gardner
> >
>---
>B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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