[B-Greek] Acts 1:16

Richard Lindeman oblchurch at msn.com
Tue Feb 28 12:32:41 EST 2006


Dr. Conrad:

Ok... I will attempt to temper my wild interpretations of the definite 
article.  But are you aware of any instances in which the definite article 
is used as a pronoun when it is not the subject of a finite verb?  Or in 
your readings have you ever seen it used as a substitute for hOS?

Rich Lindeman



----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
To: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
Cc: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, February 27, 2006 8:21 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16


> Dr. Conrad:
>
> Thanks... this is exactly the kind of information I was looking for.  In 
> my readings of NT Greek I was aware of the occassional funtion of the 
> definite article as a pronoun. That is what I was was wrestling with in 
> Acts 1:16. In the flow of this particular verse it just seemed a shorter 
> trip for me to imagine the TOU funtioning as a pronoun than to do the 
> mental gymnastics involved in reading it as an articular participle. But 
> this may simply be my western mindset playing tricks on me.
>
> Rich Lindeman
>
>
> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
> To: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
> Sent: Monday, February 27, 2006 2:35 AM
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16
>
>
>> It can be a pronoun (originally was a pronoun, of course, a very weak 
>> "he/she/it") and still in Koine preserves that in such expressions  where 
>> it functions as subject of a finite verb: hO D' EFH ... "but he  said 
>> ..." -- particularly when there's a MEN or DE following the 
>> article/pronoun.
>>
>> On Feb 26, 2006, at 11:25 PM, Richard Lindeman wrote:
>>
>>> Right... genitive of an articular participle does make sense to me  and 
>>> I saw
>>> that from the start. I also clearly understood that an articular 
>>> participle
>>> could either be translated as a relative clause or not.
>>>
>>> But for some reason I was thinking that the definite article in  Greek 
>>> at
>>> times actually varies in form and function... not just as an  adaptation 
>>> to
>>> the English language, but rather as something inherent to the Greek 
>>> language
>>> itself. (i.e. form = definite article, but function = pronoun)
>>>
>>> Rich Lindeman
>>>
>>>
> 




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