[B-Greek] Acts 1:16

Perry L. Stepp plstepp at kcu.edu
Tue Feb 28 10:51:09 EST 2006


Regarding the first half of Richard's question ("any instances in which the
definite article is used as a pronoun when it is not the subject of a finite
verb?"):

In class the other day, we ran across 1 Jn 2.13: GRAFW . . hOTI EGNWKATE TON
AP' ARXHS.  Here, the article acts as an accusative case noun, the direct
object of EGNWKATE.

I'm sure there are dozens of other examples.

Perry L. Stepp, Ph.D.

Associate Professor, Biblical Studies and Theology
Kentucky Christian University

http://theophiluspunk.typepad.com 

One naturally assumes musicians will sound like imbeciles when they talk
about nuclear proliferation, just as politicians sound like rutting musk
oxen when they attempt to commit music. It would be irresponsible and cruel
to judge either group by their avocations. 

                                         --Tony Snow


-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Richard Lindeman
Sent: Tuesday, February 28, 2006 12:33 PM
To: Richard Lindeman; Carl W. Conrad
Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16

Dr. Conrad:

Ok... I will attempt to temper my wild interpretations of the definite 
article.  But are you aware of any instances in which the definite article 
is used as a pronoun when it is not the subject of a finite verb?  Or in 
your readings have you ever seen it used as a substitute for hOS?

Rich Lindeman



----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
To: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
Cc: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, February 27, 2006 8:21 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16


> Dr. Conrad:
>
> Thanks... this is exactly the kind of information I was looking for.  In 
> my readings of NT Greek I was aware of the occassional funtion of the 
> definite article as a pronoun. That is what I was was wrestling with in 
> Acts 1:16. In the flow of this particular verse it just seemed a shorter 
> trip for me to imagine the TOU funtioning as a pronoun than to do the 
> mental gymnastics involved in reading it as an articular participle. But 
> this may simply be my western mindset playing tricks on me.
>
> Rich Lindeman
>
>
> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
> To: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
> Sent: Monday, February 27, 2006 2:35 AM
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16
>
>
>> It can be a pronoun (originally was a pronoun, of course, a very weak 
>> "he/she/it") and still in Koine preserves that in such expressions  where

>> it functions as subject of a finite verb: hO D' EFH ... "but he  said 
>> ..." -- particularly when there's a MEN or DE following the 
>> article/pronoun.
>>
>> On Feb 26, 2006, at 11:25 PM, Richard Lindeman wrote:
>>
>>> Right... genitive of an articular participle does make sense to me  and 
>>> I saw
>>> that from the start. I also clearly understood that an articular 
>>> participle
>>> could either be translated as a relative clause or not.
>>>
>>> But for some reason I was thinking that the definite article in  Greek 
>>> at
>>> times actually varies in form and function... not just as an  adaptation

>>> to
>>> the English language, but rather as something inherent to the Greek 
>>> language
>>> itself. (i.e. form = definite article, but function = pronoun)
>>>
>>> Rich Lindeman
>>>
>>>
> 

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