[B-Greek] Acts 1:16
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue Feb 28 12:31:03 EST 2006
On Feb 28, 2006, at 12:32 PM, Richard Lindeman wrote:
> Dr. Conrad:
>
> Ok... I will attempt to temper my wild interpretations of the definite
> article. But are you aware of any instances in which the definite
> article
> is used as a pronoun when it is not the subject of a finite verb?
> Or in
> your readings have you ever seen it used as a substitute for hOS?
(a) as a pronoun when it is not subject of a finite verb: when it is
substantival by reason of addition of an adverb or particle, e.g. TOU
MEN, TOU DE ("of the one, of the other") or TOIS NUN ("for the
people of today) or TOIS ENQADE "for the people in that place") --
but of course some noun is always understand in such instances,
ANQRWPOS or the like.
(b) as a substitute for hOS: hO D' EFH is equivalent to older Attic H
D' hOS ("said he") which corresponds to HN D'EGW ("said I"). In
origin the article and the relative pronoun are identical, gradually
becoming clearly differentiated in Attic (and so in Koine) dialect.
You really ought to read through the first entry in BDAG under hO,
hH, TO "this one, that one, the article functioning as demonstrative
pronoun")
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
> To: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
> Cc: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Monday, February 27, 2006 8:21 AM
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16
>
>
>> Dr. Conrad:
>>
>> Thanks... this is exactly the kind of information I was looking
>> for. In
>> my readings of NT Greek I was aware of the occassional funtion of the
>> definite article as a pronoun. That is what I was was wrestling
>> with in
>> Acts 1:16. In the flow of this particular verse it just seemed a
>> shorter
>> trip for me to imagine the TOU funtioning as a pronoun than to do the
>> mental gymnastics involved in reading it as an articular
>> participle. But
>> this may simply be my western mindset playing tricks on me.
>>
>> Rich Lindeman
>>
>>
>> ----- Original Message -----
>> From: "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
>> To: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>
>> Sent: Monday, February 27, 2006 2:35 AM
>> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Acts 1:16
>>
>>
>>> It can be a pronoun (originally was a pronoun, of course, a very
>>> weak
>>> "he/she/it") and still in Koine preserves that in such
>>> expressions where
>>> it functions as subject of a finite verb: hO D' EFH ... "but he
>>> said
>>> ..." -- particularly when there's a MEN or DE following the
>>> article/pronoun.
>>>
>>> On Feb 26, 2006, at 11:25 PM, Richard Lindeman wrote:
>>>
>>>> Right... genitive of an articular participle does make sense to
>>>> me and
>>>> I saw
>>>> that from the start. I also clearly understood that an articular
>>>> participle
>>>> could either be translated as a relative clause or not.
>>>>
>>>> But for some reason I was thinking that the definite article in
>>>> Greek
>>>> at
>>>> times actually varies in form and function... not just as an
>>>> adaptation
>>>> to
>>>> the English language, but rather as something inherent to the Greek
>>>> language
>>>> itself. (i.e. form = definite article, but function = pronoun)
>>>>
>>>> Rich Lindeman
>>>>
>>>>
>>
>
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Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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