[B-Greek] Timothy 3:2 & 5:9
W Ellison
el_guero2000 at yahoo.com
Sun Jan 1 16:22:24 EST 2006
I am looking at the Greek construct used by Paul for describing a man in 3:2 and a woman in 5:9.
I am interested why the terminology in Tim 3:2 MIAS GUNAIKOS ANDRA is often (now*) translated a one woman man, while in Tim 5:9 hENOS ANDROS GUNH is translated a wife of one husband.
BACKGROUND: I know that similar words in Spanish, Korean, & Japanese in a simlar grammitcal contruction would translate man into husband and woman into wife. And from what I know of Greek, I would assume the same to be true in Greek. Greek also has a dictionary meaning of husband and wife for these words(**). But, I have noticed that some translators do not allow the term to be translated "Husband of one wife" in Tim 3:2. Ironically, the seem to be 'OK' with translating Tim 5:9 as "a widow of one husband".
So, I ask: "Is there a reason why the lexical meaning of the words is not liked in this passage?" Or, is there an underlying reasoning in Greek why the secondary lexical meaning must not be used when translating this passage?" (***)
(*) I understand that historically, this passage was used to deny digamists from the Pastorate.
(*) Lexically, these words have a secondary meaning of husband and wife.
(**) I am still single. So while I am concerned with the personal implications, I am more concerned about the translation.
Wayne Allison
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