[B-Greek] John 1:1c

Richard Burks rburks9400 at comcast.net
Mon Jul 3 21:43:16 EDT 2006


Roger,

You should look at Mounce's "Basics of Biblical Greek" he states:

"... Word order is employed especially for the sake of emphasis.  Generally
speaking, when a word is thrown to the front of the clause it is done so for
emphasis.  When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by
virtue of word order it takes on emphasis.  A good illustration of this is
John 1:1c. ...

We know that 'the Word' is the subject because it ahs the definite article,
and we translate it accordingly: 'and the Word was God.'..."

Mounce p.28

In this article he goes on to say why Theos even though it does not have the
article directly in front of it should have the article in the translated
phrase.  He goes on to note that it shows that "Jesus Christ is not the
Father." p. 29

Hope this helps.

Regards,

Dr. Bill Burks D.B.L.


On 7/3/06 6:54 PM, "Roger Kohlstedt" <ronrukohl at verizon.net> wrote:

> In the last phrase  of John 1:1 the English Bible
> states that  "the word was God".   In the Greek Bible
> it is " QEOS HN LOGOS".  Why is the word order
> different in the Greek?  Is it to emphasize the divine
> nature of the logos?
> 
> 
> Roger Kohlstedt
> ---
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