[B-Greek] John 1:1c
SEAN KASABUSKE
alethinon61 at milwpc.com
Mon Jul 3 22:31:22 EDT 2006
Hi Bill,
This is a theologically loaded verse, but I have a couple of generic
questions about Colwell constructions in general. Since we know that nouns
that occur before the verb are often simply indefinite nouns (for examples,
see John 4:19, 6:70, 8:34, 8:44, 8:48, 9:17, 9:24, 9:25, 10:1, 10:13, 12:6,
18:35, 18:37), on what grammatical basis, then, do we establish that
fronting is used in a given case for emphasis? Is it guess work based solely
on our view of the context?
Also, on what grammatical basis do we establish that the emphasis achieved
by fronting is so powerful that it negates the normal sense of the term
used? What I mean is that "God" is normally a proper noun in the Bible when
used in a positive way, and as such it normally identifies a specific
individual (or representatives of said individual). But at 1:1c it is
suggested that it is merely the qualities of the one who is identified as
God that are predicated upon the LOGOS. On what grammatical basis do we
remove the qualities from the entity who owns them, and how do we know that
it is the qualities of the specific God that are predicated if the noun is
not a proper noun referring to the specific God? In other words, if QOES is
qualitative, then how is it that it identifies, and if it identifies, then
how is it qualitative?
Sincerely,
Sean Kasabuske
----- Original Message -----
From: "Richard Burks" <rburks9400 at comcast.net>
To: "Roger Kohlstedt" <ronrukohl at verizon.net>; "Biblical Greek"
<b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, July 03, 2006 8:43 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] John 1:1c
> Roger,
>
> You should look at Mounce's "Basics of Biblical Greek" he states:
>
> "... Word order is employed especially for the sake of emphasis.
> Generally
> speaking, when a word is thrown to the front of the clause it is done so
> for
> emphasis. When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by
> virtue of word order it takes on emphasis. A good illustration of this is
> John 1:1c. ...
>
> We know that 'the Word' is the subject because it ahs the definite
> article,
> and we translate it accordingly: 'and the Word was God.'..."
>
> Mounce p.28
>
> In this article he goes on to say why Theos even though it does not have
> the
> article directly in front of it should have the article in the translated
> phrase. He goes on to note that it shows that "Jesus Christ is not the
> Father." p. 29
>
> Hope this helps.
>
> Regards,
>
> Dr. Bill Burks D.B.L.
>
>
> On 7/3/06 6:54 PM, "Roger Kohlstedt" <ronrukohl at verizon.net> wrote:
>
>> In the last phrase of John 1:1 the English Bible
>> states that "the word was God". In the Greek Bible
>> it is " QEOS HN LOGOS". Why is the word order
>> different in the Greek? Is it to emphasize the divine
>> nature of the logos?
>>
>>
>> Roger Kohlstedt
>> ---
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