[B-Greek] "attain" for "find"?
Fridolin Janzen
fjanzen at gmx.net
Thu Jul 27 09:24:55 EDT 2006
What if the word “find”, “heuriskō” would simply be translated with one of its secondary meanings (according to Thayer: obtain, attain), instead of with its primary meaning, as the italian Riveduta Luzzi does, using “attained”:
Rom 4:1 Che diremo dunque che l'antenato nostro Abramo abbia ottenuto secondo la carne?
"What then shall we say (that) Abraham, our forefather, attained according to the flesh?”
According to the flesh Abraham attained the Middle East conflict. According to faith he attained the Lord’ righteousness.
Pastor Fridolin Janzen
Message: 7
Date: Wed, 26 Jul 2006 10:53:39 -0500
From: Harold Holmyard <hholmyard at ont.com>
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Romans 4:1
To: B-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Message-ID: <44C79003.9050103 at ont.com>
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Dear Stephen,
>Yes, since ABRAAM is indeclinable it "could" serve as subject for
>hEURHKENAI, but then the sentence would make little or no sense. (1) "What
>then shall we say (that) Abraham finds our forefather according to flesh?"
>or (2) "What then shall we say (that) Abraham, our forefather, finds
>according to flesh?" We can certainly rule out (2) since hEURHKENAI is
>transitive, but there is nothing to provide an object. And (1) is just
>nonsensical, since Abraham obviously is the forefather under issue.
>Therefore, I think one can rule out ABRAAM as subject for hEURHKENAI.
>
>
>
HH: Maybe I just don't understand you, but option 2 above is that taken
by nearly every major translation of the Bible and makes perfect sense.
The object of the transitive verb is "what," since this is a question.
The object is TI.
TI OUN EROUMEN hEURHKENAI ABRAAM TON PROPATORA hHMWN KATA SARKA
However, the textual evidence favors to a consider extent that
"according to the flesh" goes with "forefather":
"What then shall we say (that) Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh, has found?
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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