[B-Greek] Textual variants

Marion Fox mrfox1 at gmail.com
Wed Jun 21 10:41:43 EDT 2006


Marion Fox here,

I have a question about the textual variants in some of the manuscripts: "Is
it possible that some of the variant spellings were caused by variants in
spelling in the Greek that was written?" For example, in English the word
"vapor" is spelled "vapour" in England and "vapor" in the United States.
However when it is spoken we cannot discern any difference (except in the
accent of the speaker).

I have wondered about this for several years.

Yours in His service,

-- 
Marion Fox

http://www.fivefpublishing.com



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