[B-Greek] Matt 16:18
Dave Smith (REL110, 211,212)
rel21x at charter.net
Wed May 17 20:50:41 EDT 2006
Bob's final statement is to the point. It is clear that Jesus was the one
who changed Simeon's name to Peter, and he was called this, in either Greek
(PETROS) or Aramaic (KEPHA) throughout the ministry. Peter was the Rock,
whether PETRA or not is another matter. But, as Bob said, "Simply giving
Cephas a new designation is not, in itself,
significant," at least to later theological dogmas. But on the other hand,
it was significant to Peter that Jesus had given him this name.
Dave Smith
Hudson, NC
----- Original Message -----
From: "Bob Fuller" <rjfjr at mn.rr.com>
To: "B-Greek List" <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, May 17, 2006 19:54
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Matt 16:18
> One more thing. It could be that the reference is to the phrase, the
> formulaic wording SU EI PETROS. We are getting perilously close to
> out-of-bounds here, but I do not see that such a reference does anyone any
> particular good. Simply giving Cephas a new designation is not, in itself,
> significant.
>
> Bob Fuller
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Mitch Larramore
> Sent: Wednesday, May 17, 2006 5:34 PM
> To: B Greek
> Subject: [B-Greek] Matt 16:18
>
> hOTI SU EI PETROS, KAI EPI TAUTHi THi PETRAi...
>
> Without illiciting any theological discussion on what/who the rock is, is
it
> fairly clear grammatically/syntactically to conclude that the introductory
> clause SU EI PETROS, in that it is painfully obvious (stating the
obvious),
> must in some way function as a set-up for the forthcoming PETRAi word
usage?
> Or, are there any other grammatical/lexical considerations that must be
> considered in this extented context?
>
> Mitch Larramore
> Sugar Land, Texas
>
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