[B-Greek] POIEW as appoint" Septuagintal? -- ADDITIONAL
Harold Holmyard
hholmyard at ont.com
Wed May 24 08:08:42 EDT 2006
Dear George,
>In 1 Sam 12.6 Samuel speaks regarding [RSV] "The Lord is witness, who appointed Moses and . . ." Here the LXX does read
>
>MARTUS KURIOS hO POIHSAS TON MWUSHN . . .
>
>The Hebrew here, however, does not use %iYM as might be expected but rather (f%fH. In another context I noted that the Hebrew uses a denominative of the noun MLK in the Hiphil regarding the appointment of a king, but the LXX does not use POIEW.
>
>
HH: Thanks, Androcles, for removing the thorn from the lion's paw. The
LSJ lexicon was using the LXX designation of book names, and so by
saying "LXX 1 Ki. 12.6" meant 1 Sam 12:6. The reference was not wrong,
but I was improperly reading it. I appreciate the help. Yes, the word
clearly implies "appoint" there:
1Sam. 12:6 Then Samuel said to the people, “It is the LORD who appointed
Moses and Aaron and brought your forefathers up out of Egypt.
HH: So Arius' problem was that he did not understand this usage of
POIEW, and the question remains whether the NT was borrowing a strictly
LXX usage of the verb, or whether this usage is also attested in
extra-biblical literature.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
>
>george
>gfsomsel
>_________
>
>-- Harold Holmyard <hholmyard at ont.com> wrote:
>Dear list,
>
>In a couple of places the NT uses POIEW as "appoint, install." LSJ gives
>this meaning for POIEW but only offers a NT example (Mark 3:14) and an
>LXX example (1 Kgs 12:6), no extra-biblical example. The 1 Kings
>reference is incorrect in LSJ. Genesis 41:34 would seem to be a valid
>LXX use of POIEW as "appoint." Another NT example is Heb 3:2, which was
>a verse used by the Arians. Has anyone noticed POIEW meaning "appoint"
>or "install" in non-biblical literature? I cannot find the usage as
>"appoint, install" described in BAGD under POIEW.
>
>Yours,
>Harold Holmyard
>---
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