[B-Greek] POIEW as appoint" Septuagintal? -- ADDITIONAL

Harold Holmyard hholmyard at ont.com
Wed May 24 08:08:42 EDT 2006


Dear George,

>In 1 Sam 12.6 Samuel speaks regarding [RSV] "The Lord is witness, who appointed Moses and . . ." Here the LXX does read 
>
>MARTUS KURIOS hO POIHSAS TON MWUSHN . . .
>
>The Hebrew here, however, does not use %iYM as might be expected but rather (f%fH.  In another context I noted that the Hebrew uses a denominative of the noun MLK in the Hiphil regarding the appointment of a king, but the LXX does not use POIEW.
>  
>

HH: Thanks, Androcles, for removing the thorn from the lion's paw. The 
LSJ lexicon was using the LXX designation of book names, and so by 
saying "LXX 1 Ki. 12.6" meant 1 Sam 12:6. The reference was not wrong, 
but I was improperly reading it. I appreciate the help. Yes, the word 
clearly implies "appoint" there:

1Sam. 12:6 Then Samuel said to the people, “It is the LORD who appointed 
Moses and Aaron and brought your forefathers up out of Egypt.

HH: So Arius' problem was that he did not understand this usage of 
POIEW, and the question remains whether the NT was borrowing a strictly 
LXX usage of the verb, or whether this usage is also attested in 
extra-biblical literature.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




>
>george
>gfsomsel
>_________
>
>-- Harold Holmyard <hholmyard at ont.com> wrote:
>Dear list,
>
>In a couple of places the NT uses POIEW as "appoint, install." LSJ gives 
>this meaning for POIEW but only offers a NT example (Mark 3:14) and an 
>LXX example (1 Kgs 12:6), no extra-biblical example. The 1 Kings 
>reference is incorrect in LSJ. Genesis 41:34 would seem to be a valid 
>LXX use of POIEW as "appoint." Another NT example is Heb 3:2, which was 
>a verse used by the Arians. Has anyone noticed POIEW meaning "appoint" 
>or "install" in non-biblical literature? I cannot find the usage as 
>"appoint, install" described in BAGD under POIEW.
>
>Yours,
>Harold Holmyard
>---
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