[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Oct 5 13:17:20 EDT 2006


Somehow I would question whether this is a "fairly knowledgeable" scholar (although I know him to be so in certain areas) since the only instance I note in which BDAG cites it as an adjective meaning "divine" is in the Epistle of Ignatius to the Magnesians where it appears as a genitive.  While LSJ does give instances, I would not rely too heavily on sources outside the Judaeo-Christian circle for such since it may not reflect the usage in the Judaeo-Christian tradition (and I'm not speaking of "Holy Ghost Greek").  
 
george
gfsomsel
_________ 



----- Original Message ----
From: "Awohili at aol.com" <Awohili at aol.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thursday, October 5, 2006 12:37:43 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?


In a message dated 10/05/2006 9:29:35 A.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
bvabasciano at gmail.com writes:

Dear  Mike,

Your suggestion is simply impossible from a grammatical point of  view for 
reasons given by others on this list


Impossible?  This from a fairly knowledgeable and "orthodox"  scholar:


_http://catholic-resources.org/John/Outlines-Prologue.htm_ 
(http://catholic-resources.org/John/Outlines-Prologue.htm) 

Dr. Felix Just translates "the Word was godly/godlike."

Solomon Landers



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