[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
Awohili at aol.com
Awohili at aol.com
Thu Oct 5 13:56:37 EDT 2006
In a message dated 10/05/2006 10:17:43 A.M. Pacific Daylight Time,
gfsomsel at yahoo.com writes:
Somehow I would question whether this is a "fairly knowledgeable" scholar
(although I know him to be so in certain areas) since the only instance I note
in which BDAG cites it as an adjective meaning "divine" is in the Epistle of
Ignatius to the Magnesians where it appears as a genitive. While LSJ does
give instances, I would not rely too heavily on sources outside the
Judaeo-Christian circle for such since it may not reflect the usage in the
Judaeo-Christian tradition (and I'm not speaking of "Holy Ghost Greek").
So, then, is QEOS at John 1:1c definite, indefinite, or qualitative?
And what is the difference between a qualitative rendering and the
translation "the Word was divine," as with Moffatt and others?
And what is the difference between "the Word was God" and modalism?
Thanks,
Solomon Landers
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