[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Oct 5 14:12:05 EDT 2006


Moffatt's translation was somewhat unorthodox and idiomatic and did not find favor with all sections of the church.  I cannot answer as to why any particular translator would choose to translate as he does absent an express statement regarding his intentions, but I refuse to be drawn into discussions of unitarianism, modalism, adoptionism or any other theological viewpoint since that is outside the purview of this list.  Suffice it to say that I think Moffatt was mistaken at this point.
 
george
gfsomsel
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: "Awohili at aol.com" <Awohili at aol.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thursday, October 5, 2006 1:56:37 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?


In a message dated 10/05/2006 10:17:43 A.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
gfsomsel at yahoo.com writes:

Somehow I  would question whether this is a "fairly knowledgeable" scholar 
(although I  know him to be so in certain areas) since the only instance I note 
in which  BDAG cites it as an adjective meaning "divine" is in the Epistle of 
Ignatius  to the Magnesians where it appears as a genitive.  While LSJ does 
give  instances, I would not rely too heavily on sources outside the  
Judaeo-Christian circle for such since it may not reflect the usage in the  
Judaeo-Christian tradition (and I'm not speaking of "Holy Ghost Greek").   

So, then, is QEOS at John 1:1c definite, indefinite, or  qualitative? 

And what is the difference between a qualitative rendering and the  
translation "the Word was divine," as with Moffatt and others?  

And what is the difference between "the Word was God" and modalism?

Thanks,

Solomon Landers





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