[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?

Sean Kasabuske alethinon61 at milwpc.com
Thu Oct 5 15:02:30 EDT 2006


Hi Solomon,

In Paul Dixon's thesis (is he still here?), he notes that any noun that is 
not definite is indefinite.  He says the following:

"Technically, any noun which is not definite is indefinite.  For expediency, 
however, we exclude qualitative nouns from the class of indefinite nouns." 
(The Significance of the Anarthrous Predicate Nominative in John [DTS 
Thesis]), p. 9

He made a distinction between "indefinite" and "qualitative" for the sake of 
expediency, but he clearly recognized that nouns are either definite or 
indefinite, at least "technically" (=grammatically?).  Also, Harner 
indicated that the qualitative force of QEOS at 1:1c is so prominent that it 
should not be regarded as definite.  In light of this, one wonders in which 
of the following translations QEOS *looks* like a qualitative noun that is 
"technically" indefinite:

1. "The Word was God"
2. "The Word was a god"

I think that the answer to that question is fairly obvious, isn't it?

Sincerely,
Sean Kasabuske

----- Original Message ----- 
From: <Awohili at aol.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, October 05, 2006 1:22 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?


> OK, so forget the theology and get back to the grammar.  Is QEOS at  John
> 1:1c definite, indefinite, or qualitative?
>
> Solomon Landers
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