[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
Sean Kasabuske
alethinon61 at milwpc.com
Thu Oct 5 15:02:30 EDT 2006
Hi Solomon,
In Paul Dixon's thesis (is he still here?), he notes that any noun that is
not definite is indefinite. He says the following:
"Technically, any noun which is not definite is indefinite. For expediency,
however, we exclude qualitative nouns from the class of indefinite nouns."
(The Significance of the Anarthrous Predicate Nominative in John [DTS
Thesis]), p. 9
He made a distinction between "indefinite" and "qualitative" for the sake of
expediency, but he clearly recognized that nouns are either definite or
indefinite, at least "technically" (=grammatically?). Also, Harner
indicated that the qualitative force of QEOS at 1:1c is so prominent that it
should not be regarded as definite. In light of this, one wonders in which
of the following translations QEOS *looks* like a qualitative noun that is
"technically" indefinite:
1. "The Word was God"
2. "The Word was a god"
I think that the answer to that question is fairly obvious, isn't it?
Sincerely,
Sean Kasabuske
----- Original Message -----
From: <Awohili at aol.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, October 05, 2006 1:22 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
> OK, so forget the theology and get back to the grammar. Is QEOS at John
> 1:1c definite, indefinite, or qualitative?
>
> Solomon Landers
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