[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
James Spinti
JSpinti at Eisenbrauns.com
Thu Oct 5 15:27:28 EDT 2006
As I asked the last time this whole thing came up--maybe 3 weeks ago?
Why does no one who is arguing for the "a god" translation go back to
the early church fathers who knew Greek? Is this verse ever used as an
argument in any of their treatises (both for and against Arianism)? They
KNEW Greek, they spoke it, thought in it, breathed it-if you will. As
far as I can tell from my somewhat limited reading (but more than the
last time the question came up!), neither side used John 1 as an
argument. It was a non-starter, grammatically.
I am open to being shown wrong, but in view of our more limited
knowledge of Greek, we should show a bit of humility before their
silence in using the supposed "indefiniteness" of QEOS as an argument.
Maybe we should concentrate on reading Greek, and not trying to proof
text our own theological viewpoint, especially if our knowledge of Greek
is limited to a year or three of college/seminary Greek (and only NT
Koine at that!).
Frustratedly,
James
(yes, I have an advanced degree in Classics...)
________________________________
James Spinti
Marketing Director, Book Sales Division
Eisenbrauns, Good books for over 30 years
Specializing in Ancient Near Eastern and Biblical Studies
jspinti at eisenbrauns dot com
Web: http://www.eisenbrauns.com
Phone: 574-269-2011 ext 226
Fax: 574-269-6788
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of
> Awohili at aol.com
> Sent: Thursday, October 05, 2006 2:22 PM
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
>
>
> OK, so forget the theology and get back to the grammar. Is
> QEOS at John
> 1:1c definite, indefinite, or qualitative?
>
> Solomon Landers
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