[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Oct 5 16:29:49 EDT 2006


If I want to quote scripture and the devil himself gives the quote, I will use it (not to compare Wallace with the devil).  That it is in Wallace's book has nothing to do with the issue.  Leave him out of it unless I quote him directly -- unless, of course, you wish to quote him on your own.
 
george
gfsomsel
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: "Awohili at aol.com" <Awohili at aol.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thursday, October 5, 2006 4:12:54 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?


Well, there you go quoting from Wallace again.  For what it's worth,  
grammarian Wallace doesn't totally agree with Colwell.

Among other things, Dr. Daniel Wallace says: 

If we check the rule to see if it applies here, we would say that the  
previous mention of QEOS (in 1:1b) is articular.  Therefore, if the same  person 
being referred to there is called QEOS in 1:1c, then in both places it is  
definite.  Although certainly possible grammatically (though not nearly as  likely 
as qualitative), the evidence is not very compelling.  The vast  majority of 
definite anarthrous pre-verbal predicate nominatives are monadic, in  genitive 
constructions, or are proper names, none of which is true here,  diminishing 
the likelihood of a definite QEOS in John 1:1c.  Further,  calling QEOS in 1:1c 
definite is the same as saying that if it had followed the  verb it would have 
had the article.  Thus it would be a convertible  proposition with LOGOS 
(i.e., "the Word " = "God" and "God" = "The Word").   The problem of this argument 
is that the QEOS in 1:1b is the Father.  Thus  to say that the QEOS in 1:1c 
is the same person is to say that "the Word was the  Father."  This, as older 
grammarians and exegetes pointed out, is embryonic  Sabellianism or modalism. 
-- Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, page 268.

I'm not saying that Dr. Daniel Wallace is right or wrong, but if you're  
going to quote from his book, you bring him into the discussion.

Solomon Landers


-----------------------------------------------
You are correct.  I was saying Granville Sharp and quoting Granville  Sharp 
but was thinking of Colwell.  I guess I have been operating "with  half my 
brain tied behind my back."  Here is  Colwell
_____________

Definite predicate nouns which precede the verb  usually lack the article … a 
predicate nominative which precedes the verb cannot  be translated as an 
indefinite or a ‘qualitative’ noun solely because of the  absence of the article; 
if the context suggests that the predicate is definite,  it should be 
translated as a definite noun… .” 

Daniel B. Wallace. (1999;  2002). Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics - 
Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament  (257). Zondervan Publishing House and Galaxie  
Software.

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