[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Thu Oct 5 16:29:49 EDT 2006
If I want to quote scripture and the devil himself gives the quote, I will use it (not to compare Wallace with the devil). That it is in Wallace's book has nothing to do with the issue. Leave him out of it unless I quote him directly -- unless, of course, you wish to quote him on your own.
george
gfsomsel
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----- Original Message ----
From: "Awohili at aol.com" <Awohili at aol.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thursday, October 5, 2006 4:12:54 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
Well, there you go quoting from Wallace again. For what it's worth,
grammarian Wallace doesn't totally agree with Colwell.
Among other things, Dr. Daniel Wallace says:
If we check the rule to see if it applies here, we would say that the
previous mention of QEOS (in 1:1b) is articular. Therefore, if the same person
being referred to there is called QEOS in 1:1c, then in both places it is
definite. Although certainly possible grammatically (though not nearly as likely
as qualitative), the evidence is not very compelling. The vast majority of
definite anarthrous pre-verbal predicate nominatives are monadic, in genitive
constructions, or are proper names, none of which is true here, diminishing
the likelihood of a definite QEOS in John 1:1c. Further, calling QEOS in 1:1c
definite is the same as saying that if it had followed the verb it would have
had the article. Thus it would be a convertible proposition with LOGOS
(i.e., "the Word " = "God" and "God" = "The Word"). The problem of this argument
is that the QEOS in 1:1b is the Father. Thus to say that the QEOS in 1:1c
is the same person is to say that "the Word was the Father." This, as older
grammarians and exegetes pointed out, is embryonic Sabellianism or modalism.
-- Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, page 268.
I'm not saying that Dr. Daniel Wallace is right or wrong, but if you're
going to quote from his book, you bring him into the discussion.
Solomon Landers
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You are correct. I was saying Granville Sharp and quoting Granville Sharp
but was thinking of Colwell. I guess I have been operating "with half my
brain tied behind my back." Here is Colwell
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Definite predicate nouns which precede the verb usually lack the article … a
predicate nominative which precedes the verb cannot be translated as an
indefinite or a ‘qualitative’ noun solely because of the absence of the article;
if the context suggests that the predicate is definite, it should be
translated as a definite noun… .”
Daniel B. Wallace. (1999; 2002). Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics -
Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (257). Zondervan Publishing House and Galaxie
Software.
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