[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?

Awohili at aol.com Awohili at aol.com
Thu Oct 5 16:52:04 EDT 2006


 
So, now Colwell's Rule is "scripture"???
 
I did quote Wallace on my own, but you have yet to show where he is  
incorrect.  You have only stated that you do not agree with him.  But  why, 
grammatically speaking, is Wallace incorrect in arguing for a qualitative  usage at John 
1:1c?
 
Solomon
____________________________
In a message dated 10/05/2006 1:30:42 P.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
gfsomsel at yahoo.com writes:

If I want to quote scripture and the devil himself gives the quote, I  will 
use it (not to compare Wallace with the devil).  That it is in  Wallace's book 
has nothing to do with the issue.  Leave him out of it  unless I quote him 
directly -- unless, of course, you wish to quote him on  your own.

george
gfsomsel







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