[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?
Awohili at aol.com
Awohili at aol.com
Thu Oct 5 16:57:21 EDT 2006
Hello, Jim.
Like many of us here, I'm seeking knowledge. I have seen some strong
assertions put forth that have nothing to do with the grammar of John 1:1c. I have
yet to see an explanation of why John 1:1c must definitely be one thing or
another, or one thing as against another.
Maybe no one wants to deal with that?
Solomon Landers
In a message dated 10/05/2006 1:47:38 P.M. Pacific Daylight Time,
jwest at highland.net writes:
I'm curious. I think by now you've gotten an answer in each direction.
I.e., some of us think it's definite, some doubtless think it's
indefinite, and others think it qualitative. Are you soliciting
opinions or counting votes?
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