[B-Greek] Jn 1:1 - Alternate Reading?

Awohili at aol.com Awohili at aol.com
Thu Oct 5 16:57:21 EDT 2006


 
Hello, Jim.
 
Like many of us here, I'm seeking knowledge.  I have seen some strong  
assertions put forth that have nothing to do with the grammar of John  1:1c.  I have 
yet to see an explanation of why John 1:1c must  definitely be one thing or 
another, or one thing as against another.
 
Maybe no one wants to deal with that?
 
Solomon Landers
 
In a message dated 10/05/2006 1:47:38 P.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
jwest at highland.net writes:

I'm  curious.  I think by now you've gotten an answer in each direction.  
I.e., some of us think it's definite, some doubtless think it's  
indefinite, and others think it qualitative.  Are you soliciting  
opinions or counting votes?








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