[B-Greek] Aorist and Imperfect: points of consensus

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Fri Sep 22 00:43:08 EDT 2006


Dr. Conrad:

> 1. What is meant by the term "verbal aspect" with
> reference to the  
> ancient Greek verb?
> 2. What is meant by the term "Aktionsart" with
> reference to the  
> ancient Greek verb?
> 3. Is there consensus on the meaning of terms such
> as "perfective,"  
> "imperfective," "stative," etc. (what other terms
> belong here?)
> 3. How do the ancient Greek Indicative-mood forms
> differ in meaning  
> from the Non-indicative-mood forms?
> 4. What does the augment signify in ancient Greek
> imperfect, aorist,  
> and pluperfect Indicative-mood forms?
> 5. How does the ancient Greek Indicative Imperfect
> differ in meaning  
> from the Indicative Aorist?
> 6. Is temporal reference grammaticalized in any of
> the ancient Greek  
> Indicative "tenses"? If not, how does a
> speaker/hearer/reader  
> recognize temporal reference?
> 
> 7. Does the ancient Greek Indicative future "tense"
> have aspect?
> 8. Can the ancient Greek Indicative present "tense"
> be adequately  
> characterized in terms of its aspect?


I would add the following: What is a deictic center,
and how can it be determined/influenced/developed? (In
my reading of this discussion, I really can't see much
disagreement about the relation of events WITHIN a
passage, but the relation of events in a passage to a
deictic center has been debated. And to me, the issue
here is: is the deictic center developed by the
writer, or is the deictic center the time of writing.)
I'm still not able to see speaking and writing
(suggested by Pastor Mishoe) as similar modes of
communication (did Shakespeare talk like he wrote?). I
think the default assumption of "the time of
speaking/writing" should be revised to "the time of
speaking" AND differently "the time of writing." I'm
not convinced that 'writing and speaking' should be
lumped together.

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas

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