[B-Greek] The Infinitive
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon Aug 20 14:25:55 EDT 2007
Are you talking about the Greek infinitive -- articular with TO, as
in TO BAPTIZEIN -- or about the infinitive in English, which commonly
uses the preposition "to" with the unconjugated form of the verb
stem: "to baptize"?
On Aug 20, 2007, at 11:42 AM, Mitch Larramore wrote:
> All the grammars I've checked use the following way of
> defining the infinitive:
>
> to + infinitive
>
> My question is this: Isn't the "to" a part of the
> infinitive? The infinite BAPTIZEIN means "to baptize"
> rather than "baptize." So, why isn't the "to" part of
> the definition of the infinitive so that the following
> way is used:
>
> "to + verbal noun" = infinitive
>
>
>
> Mitch Larramore
> Sugar Land, Texas
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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