[B-Greek] The Infinitive
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Mon Aug 20 13:40:04 EDT 2007
I'd imagine because not all uses of the infinitive come out as 'to + infinitive.' Sometimes it is contemporaneous as in EN TWi + infinitive. Other times it is refers to 'time', and sometimes it even acts like an imperative.
--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
-------------- Original message --------------
From: "Charlie" <c.arnoldjr at worldnet.att.net>
> Your understanding of the definition of the infinitive is the way I came to
> understand it. I'm sure we will find many others in agreement.
>
> Charlie Arnold, Ph.D.
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Mitch Larramore"
> To: "B Greek"
> Sent: Monday, August 20, 2007 11:42 AM
> Subject: [B-Greek] The Infinitive
>
>
> > All the grammars I've checked use the following way of
> > defining the infinitive:
> >
> > to + infinitive
> >
> > My question is this: Isn't the "to" a part of the
> > infinitive? The infinite BAPTIZEIN means "to baptize"
> > rather than "baptize." So, why isn't the "to" part of
> > the definition of the infinitive so that the following
> > way is used:
> >
> > "to + verbal noun" = infinitive
> >
> >
> >
> > Mitch Larramore
> > Sugar Land, Texas
> >
> >
> >
> >
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