[B-Greek] The Infinitive

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Mon Aug 20 13:40:04 EDT 2007


I'd imagine because not all uses of the infinitive come out as 'to + infinitive.'  Sometimes it is contemporaneous as in EN TWi + infinitive.  Other times it is refers to 'time', and sometimes it even acts like an imperative.

--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 
From: "Charlie" <c.arnoldjr at worldnet.att.net> 

> Your understanding of the definition of the infinitive is the way I came to 
> understand it. I'm sure we will find many others in agreement. 
> 
> Charlie Arnold, Ph.D. 
> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: "Mitch Larramore" 
> To: "B Greek" 
> Sent: Monday, August 20, 2007 11:42 AM 
> Subject: [B-Greek] The Infinitive 
> 
> 
> > All the grammars I've checked use the following way of 
> > defining the infinitive: 
> > 
> > to + infinitive 
> > 
> > My question is this: Isn't the "to" a part of the 
> > infinitive? The infinite BAPTIZEIN means "to baptize" 
> > rather than "baptize." So, why isn't the "to" part of 
> > the definition of the infinitive so that the following 
> > way is used: 
> > 
> > "to + verbal noun" = infinitive 
> > 
> > 
> > 
> > Mitch Larramore 
> > Sugar Land, Texas 
> > 
> > 
> > 
> > 
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