[B-Greek] Luke 11:18 infinitive vs finite

Delbert Flora delbert.flora at hotmail.com
Sun Aug 26 10:13:50 EDT 2007


EI DE KAI hO SATANAS EF hEAUTON DIEMERISQH PWS STAQHSETAI hH BASILEIA AUTOU 
hOTI LEGETE EN BEELZEBOUL EKBALLEIN ME TA DAIMONIA

I'm just now learning about the infinitive + acc. pronoun. This verse is 
given as an example. What would be the difference if this verse concluded 
hOTI LEGETE EN BEELZEBOUL EKBALLW TA DAIMONIA? Does it give more emphasis to 
tense or aspect; does it focus more (or less) on the subject or verb? That 
ME is separated from the infinitive would lead me to believe that more 
emphasis would be on the verb because it is separated from the verbal. Also, 
the infinitive is more 'bulkier' and a longer way of writing this, which 
seems a writer would want to be the most efficient possible if there is no 
difference between the two.


Kindly,
Delbert Flora

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