[B-Greek] Luke 11:18 infinitive vs finite
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sun Aug 26 10:48:20 EDT 2007
This is essentially a matter of the idiomatic construction used with
LEGW; you might (theoretically) have hOTI LEGETE hOTI EN BEELZEBOUL
EKBALLW TA DAIMONIA, but the second hOTI introducing a direct
statement very soon after a hOTI that is causal is awkward. Yet
without that second hOTI the formulation you suggest would be
unidiomatic Greek: one expects the acc. subject + infinitive
construction after a verb of saying.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Ret)
On Aug 26, 2007, at 10:13 AM, Delbert Flora wrote:
>
> EI DE KAI hO SATANAS EF hEAUTON DIEMERISQH PWS STAQHSETAI hH
> BASILEIA AUTOU
> hOTI LEGETE EN BEELZEBOUL EKBALLEIN ME TA DAIMONIA
>
> I'm just now learning about the infinitive + acc. pronoun. This
> verse is
> given as an example. What would be the difference if this verse
> concluded
> hOTI LEGETE EN BEELZEBOUL EKBALLW TA DAIMONIA? Does it give more
> emphasis to
> tense or aspect; does it focus more (or less) on the subject or
> verb? That
> ME is separated from the infinitive would lead me to believe that more
> emphasis would be on the verb because it is separated from the
> verbal. Also,
> the infinitive is more 'bulkier' and a longer way of writing this,
> which
> seems a writer would want to be the most efficient possible if
> there is no
> difference between the two.
>
>
> Kindly,
> Delbert Flora
>
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