[B-Greek] Luke 11:18 infinitive vs finite

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Sun Aug 26 11:16:30 EDT 2007


This is an indirect statement which is being reported as having been quoted by Jesus as you seem to already know.  I would not particularly say that hOTI would change it in any substantial way.  It is a manner of speech such as we encounter in English (and I would presume in all other languages as well).  E.g. it is quite common to hear someone say, "at this point in time" when a simple "now" would serve as well.  BDF notes (Note particularly the section set off with "****")

(3) Verbs of saying etc. take ὅτι [hOTI] to a very large extent: Φάναι ὅτι [FANAI hOTI] 1 C 10:19, 15:50 (acc. and inf. R 3:8), while in class. this verb hardly ever takes ὅτι (any more than it takes an indirect question). Λαλεῖν [LALEIN] seldom ὅτι [hOTI] H 11:18, never with acc. and inf.; the common construction rather is ἐλάλησεν λέγων [ELALHSEN LEGWN] like ἔκραξεν λέγων [EKRACEN LEGWN], ἀπεκρίθη λ. [APEKRIQH L.] etc., formed on the model of Hebr. יְדַבֵּר לֵאמֹר (§420 [Y:DaB."R l"MoR]). Κράζειν [KRAZEIN], (ἀπο- [APO-]) φθέγγεσθαι [FQEGGESQAI], φωνεῖν [FWNEIN] never take ὅτι [hOTI] or the acc. and inf. Ἀποκρίνεσθαι [APOKRINESQAI] only in Lk: Lk 20:7 inf., A 25:4 acc. and inf., 16 and IPhld 8.2 ὅτι. Βοᾶν [BOAN] only A 25:24 (inf.). Ὀμνύειν ὅτι [OMNUEIN hOTI] Mt 26:74 = Mk 14:71, Rev 10:6 (unclass.; aor. inf.
 A 2:30, Barn 14.1, fut. inf. as in class. H 3:18); so also in other expressions of asseveration: ἔστιν ἀλήθεια τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν ἐμοί, ὅτι [ESTIN ALHQEIA TOU XRISTOU EN EMOI, hOTI] 2 C 11:10, cf. G 1:20, R 14:11 (cf. 1 Clem 58.2), 2 C 1:23 (s. infra). ***** In contrast to ὅτι [hOTI], the (acc. with) inf. has strongly retreated in NT authors outside of Lk and Paul: ***** acc. and inf. λέγειν [LEGEIN] Mt 16:13, 15, 22:23 (= Mk 8:27, 29, 12:18), Jn 12:29 etc., κατακρίνειν [KATAKRINEIN] Mk 14:64, ἐπιμαρτυρεῖν [EPIMARTUREIN] 1 P 5:12, ἐπαγγέλλεσθαι [EPAGGELLESQAI] inf. Mk 14:11, A 7:5, 2 Clem 11.6, Herm Vis 3.1.2; in Lk and Paul also ἀπαγγέλλειν [APAGGELLEIN] A 12:14, προκαταγγέλλειν [PROKATAGGELLEIN] 3:18, ἀπαρνεῖσθαι [APARNEISQAI] Lk 22:34, διισχυρίζεσθαι [DIISXURIZESQAI] A 12:15, μαρτυρεῖν [MARTUREIN] 10:43,
 προαιτιᾶσθαι [PROAITIASQAI] R 3:9, σημαίνειν [SHMAINEIN] A 11:28, χρηματίζειν [XRHMATIZEIN] ‘prophesy’ Lk 2:26; but ὅτι [hOTI] with παραγγέλλειν [PARAGGELLEIN] ‘to command’ 2 Th 3:10 is ὅτι [hOTI] recitativum (infra (5)).—Also taking ὅτι [hOTI] are equivalent expressions like μάρτυρα τὸν θεὸν ἐπικαλοῦμαι [MARTURA TON QEON EPIKALOUMAI] 2 C 1:23, αὕτη ἐστὶν ἡ μαρτυρία [hAUTH ESTIN hH MARTURIA] 1 Jn 5:11, ἔστιν αὕτη ἡ ἀγγελία [ESTIN hAUTH hH AGGELIA] 1:5, ἵνα πληρωθῇ ὁ λόγος [hINA PLHRWQHi hO LOGOS] Jn 15:25, ἀνέβη φάσις [ANEBH FASIS] A 21:31, ἐν ὀνόματι [EN ONOMATI] Mk 9:41 ‘on the claim, on the basis that’ (Heitmüller, Im Namen Jesu [Göttingen, 1903] 63f.). 

Blass, F., Debrunner, A., & Funk, R. W. (1961). A Greek grammar of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (204). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.

If we were to find that the same author at one time used a hOTI clause while at another he used the acc + inf to express a quotation, we might be justified in investigating why he did so, but when a usage such as the acc + inf is peculiar to certain authors, it is less likely that it carries any particular significance.  In this case, it seems to be a carry-over from classical usage (Anyone care to argue that the study of classical Greek is without value for the NT?).

george
gfsomsel
 
Therefore, O faithful Christian, search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.
 
- Jan Hus
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: Delbert Flora <delbert.flora at hotmail.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Sunday, August 26, 2007 9:13:50 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Luke 11:18 infinitive vs finite


EI DE KAI hO SATANAS EF hEAUTON DIEMERISQH PWS STAQHSETAI hH BASILEIA AUTOU 
hOTI LEGETE EN BEELZEBOUL EKBALLEIN ME TA DAIMONIA

I'm just now learning about the infinitive + acc. pronoun. This verse is 
given as an example. What would be the difference if this verse concluded 
hOTI LEGETE EN BEELZEBOUL EKBALLW TA DAIMONIA? Does it give more emphasis to 
tense or aspect; does it focus more (or less) on the subject or verb? That 
ME is separated from the infinitive would lead me to believe that more 
emphasis would be on the verb because it is separated from the verbal. Also, 
the infinitive is more 'bulkier' and a longer way of writing this, which 
seems a writer would want to be the most efficient possible if there is no 
difference between the two.


Kindly,
Delbert Flora

_________________________________________________________________
Booking a flight? Know when to buy with airfare predictions on MSN Travel. 
http://travel.msn.com/Articles/aboutfarecast.aspx&ocid=T001MSN25A07001

---
B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
B-Greek mailing list
B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek


       
____________________________________________________________________________________
Sick sense of humor? Visit Yahoo! TV's 
Comedy with an Edge to see what's on, when. 
http://tv.yahoo.com/collections/222


More information about the B-Greek mailing list