[B-Greek] non-accusative direct objects
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon Jul 23 22:36:14 EDT 2007
I think what is said here is valid, but some might find these
anglicized Greek names for the cases confusing:
"aitiatic" = "accusative"
"gennetic" = "genitive"
"dotic" = "dative"
That is to say, English-speaking grammarians traditionally use LATIN-
derived grammatical terms rather than Greek-derived grammatical terms.
cwc
On Jul 23, 2007, at 8:54 PM, frjsilver at optonline.net wrote:
> Dear Friends --
>
> It would be easier, I think, to say that almost all unprefixed
> active-voice verbs usually expect an aitiatic object.
>
> Prefixed and middle-voice verbs *might* expect an aitiatic object,
> but frequently expect a gennetic or dotic object.
>
> This is often signaled by the prefix itself or -- almost
> intuitively -- by the verb's intrinsic sense of action.
>
> In my opinion, it's less helpful to try to memorize lists of verbs
> than it is to begin to 'feel' their force in application.
>
> Peace and blessings to all.
>
> Father James Silver
>
> Monk James
> Orthodox Church in America
>
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----From: Delbert Flora Date: Monday, July
> 23, 2007 8:23 pmSubject: [B-Greek] non-accusative direct objectsTo:
> b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org> I don't know percentages, but I presume
> that "most" verbs take > their direct > objects in the accusative
> case. APOKRINOMAI however takes its > direct object > in the
> dative. Is there anything inherent in verbs that would > account
> for > them taking their direct objects outside the "normal direct >
> object > indicator" accusative? And, is it correct to say that >
> APOKRINOMAI (and I'm > just using this verb for illustrative
> purpose only) is an > exception to the > rule that verbs take their
> direct objects in the accusative?> > Kindly,> Delbert Flora> >
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