[B-Greek] a prep always takes an object

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sun Nov 4 09:09:19 EST 2007


On Nov 4, 2007, at 8:59 AM, Eric S. Weiss wrote:

>
>> But prepositions ordinarily are one element in prepositional
>> phrase and the phrase is not complete without a second
>> element which we usually call the "object" of the
>> preposition.
>
> Greek can omit the subject of a clause because the subject
> can be implied by the verb, e.g., EGW GINWSKW or simply
> GINWSKW.
>
> English in some instances can omit the object of the
> preposition, but I suspect in these instances the
> preposition is functioning adverbially and not as a
> preposition. E.g.:
>
> Where did he go? He went out. (As opposed to "He went out
> of the house.")
> The doctor is in. (As opposed to "The doctor is in the
> office.")
>
> My question: Does Greek do the above, or does it always
> switch to an adverb in such instances? I.e., do we ever
> find prepositions like EN, EK, hYPER, etc., used without
> an object?

Not in prose, I think. One finds in Homeric verse something akin to  
the German "separable prefix." It's traditionally called  
"tmesis" (cutting), where a verbal prefix is separated from the verb  
to which it belongs. In fact, however, it's a matter of an adverb  
used with a noun that has not yet become a regular verbal prefix.

In verse one sometimes finds instances of anastrophe, the positioning  
of a "preposition" AFTER its object ("complement," if you prefer),  
often at the end of the line (especially in the iambic trimeters of  
tragedy) -- but that's not realy the same thing. And if we talk about  
anastrophe in the case of hENEKA with a genitive, that still involves  
an object (or complement?).

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Ret)




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