[B-Greek] Eph 1:9 hHN clause

Mark Lightman lightmanmark at yahoo.com
Sun Nov 25 23:37:20 EST 2007


I would think the antecedent of hHN would have to
  be EUDOKIAN because you are right, there is no
   other feminine word any where near it (CARIS in
   v. 7 is I think too far away and already has a relative 
  clause) and there is not reason NOT to take the hHN with
  EUDOKIAN.
   
  PROSTIQHMI in the middle can mean "demonstrate" or
  "display."  God displayed his good pleasure in Jesus.
   
  It's a good question, and with Christmas coming up
  it makes me think of Luke 2:14's "men of (His)
  good pleasure (EUDOKIAS)
    

Oun Kwon <kwonbbl at gmail.com> wrote:
  Eph 1:8-9

v. 8 hHS EPERISSEUSEN EIS hHMAS EN PASHi SOFIAi KAI FRONHSEI,
v. 9 GNWRISAS hHMIN TO MUSTHRION TOU QELHMATOS AUTO,
KATA THN EUDOKIAN AUTO, hHN PROEQETO EN AUTWi

Is it correct for me to take hHN clause in v.9 to be connected to (or
modify?) EUDOKIAN
because of gender agreement (feminine)? Or because it is the closest
one as well
and none is found to agree in gender?

If so, how do I understand the expression 'He purposed (set forth) His
good-pleasure'?

This is compared to the similar clause found in in v. 5
KATA THN EUDOKIA TOU QELHMATOS AUTOU
which I understand as a parenthetical in a sense that
'such is what He wanted to His delight'.

Thanks for your help.

Oun Kwon.
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