[B-Greek] Eph 1:9 hHN clause

Jerry Austin Reimer jerry at lsm.org
Mon Nov 26 00:28:50 EST 2007


Based on form agreement and logical distance, it does seem that the
antecedent of the accusative relative pronoun hHN is EUDOKIAN. Logical
distance from the pronoun is a factor when identifying. antecedents. The
accusative form of the pronoun would usually indicate transitivity in the
verb, in this case, PROEQETO. Because of AUTWi there seems to be some ground
for considering the meaning of PROEQETO as indicating placement,
positioning, locating his EUDOKIAN. His pleasure has been placed, located,
positioned in Him. Maybe this is not much different than your displayed or
demonstrated suggestions other than that positioning may not necessarily
include displaying or demonstrating although they do seem to be pretty close
so my distinction may be hairsplitting. Romans 3:25 does have the same
aorist middle verb with a relative pronoun immediately preceding it and the
idea of display does appear to be there so I would not rule out
demonstration or display. How is that for double-talk? Anyway, here it is
for what its worth.

Jerry Reimer
 -----Original Message-----
From: 	b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]  On Behalf Of Mark Lightman
Sent:	Sunday, November 25, 2007 8:37 PM
To:	Oun Kwon; B-Greek
Subject:	Re: [B-Greek] Eph 1:9 hHN clause

I would think the antecedent of hHN would have to
  be EUDOKIAN because you are right, there is no
   other feminine word any where near it (CARIS in
   v. 7 is I think too far away and already has a relative
  clause) and there is not reason NOT to take the hHN with
  EUDOKIAN.

  PROSTIQHMI in the middle can mean "demonstrate" or
  "display."  God displayed his good pleasure in Jesus.

  It's a good question, and with Christmas coming up
  it makes me think of Luke 2:14's "men of (His)
  good pleasure (EUDOKIAS)


Oun Kwon <kwonbbl at gmail.com> wrote:
  Eph 1:8-9

v. 8 hHS EPERISSEUSEN EIS hHMAS EN PASHi SOFIAi KAI FRONHSEI,
v. 9 GNWRISAS hHMIN TO MUSTHRION TOU QELHMATOS AUTO,
KATA THN EUDOKIAN AUTO, hHN PROEQETO EN AUTWi

Is it correct for me to take hHN clause in v.9 to be connected to (or
modify?) EUDOKIAN
because of gender agreement (feminine)? Or because it is the closest
one as well
and none is found to agree in gender?

If so, how do I understand the expression 'He purposed (set forth) His
good-pleasure'?

This is compared to the similar clause found in in v. 5
KATA THN EUDOKIA TOU QELHMATOS AUTOU
which I understand as a parenthetical in a sense that
'such is what He wanted to His delight'.

Thanks for your help.

Oun Kwon.
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