[B-Greek] Rom 3.23 and temporal implicature
Iver Larsen
iver_larsen at sil.org
Tue Apr 22 02:35:11 EDT 2008
----- Original Message -----
From: "Amis, Benjamin" <Benjamin.Amis at asbury.edu>
To: "Eddie Mishoe" <edmishoe at yahoo.com>
Cc: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: 22. april 2008 00:28
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Rom 3.23 and temporal implicature
Is the aorist here being simply stated, or is it expressing a simply stated past time? It looks like
Paul is just expressing the idea of "they sinned", using the third person plural hHMARTON. It seems
one could infer that we all have sinned because of the Fall, and that Paul is alluding to that
particular instance.
Further, the verb hUSTEREW (used in the passage as hUSTEROUNTAI) could be middle OR passive, but
more importantly is in the present, "they are continually falling short themselves". I believe that
when Paul writes, "PANTES GAR hHMARTON KAI hUSTEROUNTAI" he is still conveying a sense of continual
sin. I read this as saying while the reception of humanity's sin nature occurred once at the Fall
(hence why hAMARTANW is aorist), we continually lapse back into that sin nature (why hUSTEREW is
present).
Benjamin Amis
Biblical Languages Student
Asbury College
-----------------------------------------------------
May I recommend that you use a concordance, which can be produced so easily on computers nowadays
and also that you read the whole chapter (in Greek) to get the context for a verse. In this way you
are less
liable to read your theology into the text as you do in your last sentence.
Chapter 3:9-23 is directed primarily to a Jewish audience, where Jews traditionally thought of
non-Jews as "sinners" and themselves as "non-sinners" or "righteous". It is important to keep the
intended audience in mind. That is why Paul's concern is to clarify that not only have the non-Jews
sinned (no dispute of that), but also all Jews have sinned.
The aorist here is indeed past tense and completed aspect. The focus of PANTES is "you Jews", but of
course all are included.
A concordance with grammar tags should tell you when the word hAMARTANW is used in the present
tense, e.g.
Jhn 5:14, 8:11 Don't be sinning anymore - MHKETI hAMARTANE
1Co 15:34 ἐκνήψατε δικαίως καὶ μὴ ἁμαρτάνετε - EKNHYATE DIKAIWS KAI MH hAMARTANETE
(Grow up, (behave) righteously and don't be sinning)
Eph 4:26 ὀργίζεσθε καὶ μὴ ἁμαρτάνετε - ORGIZESQE KAI MH hAMARTANETE
(you may get angry, but don't sin)
Tit 3:11 εἰδὼς ὅτι ἐξέστραπται ὁ τοιοῦτος καὶ ἁμαρτάνει ὢν αὐτοκατάκριτος - EIDWS hOTI EXESTRAPTAI
hO TOIOUTOS KAI hAMARTANEI WN AUTOKATAKRITOS (You may be sure that such a man is warped and sinful;
he is self-condemned - NIV)
1Jn 3:6 πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει - PAS hO EN AUTWi MENWN OUC hAMARTANEI (No one who lives
in him keeps on sinning - NIV)
A computer concordance with grammar tags can also tell you that of the 43 instances of hAMARTANW, 19
are present, 22 are aorist, one is future and one is perfect, namely 1Jn 1:10. Why is this one
singled out as perfect? Because there is extra stress on the certainty of the completed action:
ἐὰν εἴπωμεν ὅτι οὐχ ἡμαρτήκαμεν - EAN EIPWMEN hOTI OUX hHMARTHKAMEN (If we say that we have
absolutely never done any sin in the past).
Then look at the forms of ὑστερέω (hUSTEREW). It is used 16 times in the NT, 8 are active, the rest
middle/passive. For this verb, it makes little difference to the meaning whether it is seen as
active, middle or passive. It is comparable to "fall behind something or somebody" as active and "be
behind" as middle and "having fallen behind" as passive.
The present does indicate a present status, but it is not talking about present sinning, since that
would contradict the first part of the sentence and especially the other occurrences of the verb for
sin in the present tense in the NT.
Then look at at the meaning of ὑστερέω (hUSTEREW). It describes a state of being below or behind an
expected standard or situation. This standard is further described in the verse as τῆς δόξης τοῦ
θεοῦ - THS DOXHS TOU QEOU. It does not mean you have lost something that you used to have.
It is not helpful to translate DOXA as "glory", because that is a slippery word. DOXA has to do with
elevation in a metaphorical or extended sense. It is closely related to honor, both giving honor to
somebody and receiving honor. It is also related to pride in the good sense of that word, and
therefore also related in meaning to EUDOKIA, something fully acceptable. (Confer when God said to
Jesus that he was proud of him - pleased with him). Both honor and shame are like giving. The more
you give to others, the more you receive yourself.
In the same chapter, in v. 7, we again have God's DOXA, and CEV translates this correctly by using
the English word "honor".
So, while the second part strictly speaking does not mean that "all" are sinning, it does mean that
"all" are not living up to the ideal of giving God the honor he deserves, and therefore God cannot
be proud of such people. Paul is still talking to the (Pharisaic) Jews, who felt that they had not
sinned and that God ought to be proud of them. Paul knows how they think, because he used to be one
of them. Therefore he tells them: But you HAVE sinned and God is NOT proud of you.
Iver Larsen
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