[B-Greek] John 1:42 petros or ?

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Tue Feb 19 08:51:19 EST 2008


On Feb 19, 2008, at 8:20 AM, Gene Gardner wrote:

>  In John 1:42, why is "stone" written in the declined form of petros?

I'm not quite sure what you're asking here.
Text:
σὺ εἶ Σίμων ὁ υἱὸς Ἰωάννου, σὺ  
κληθήσῃ Κηφᾶς, ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται  
Πέτρος.
SU EI SIMWN hO hUIOS IWANNOU, SU KLHQHSHi KHFAS, hO hERMHNEUETAI PETROS.

PETROS is nominative (if that's what you're asking) because it's the  
predicate word linked by the verb hERMHNEUETAI with the relative  
pronoun hO, which is neuter singular referring back to the name KHFAS.  
OR you may be asking about the masculine gender of PETROS: the noun is  
a masculine noun -- it's not an adjective such as would have to agree  
with the relative pronoun subject.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)






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