[B-Greek] Omission of definite article before 'theos'?

Matt scotsmanmatt67 at btinternet.com
Tue Feb 19 09:10:04 EST 2008


Can someone explain to me, or point me in the right direction, to a good 
explanation of the significance of the omission of the definite article 
before theos in the NT [and especially in respect to John 1:18]?

Thanks in advance
Matt 




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