[B-Greek] Omission of definite article before 'theos'?

bwmeyers at toast.net bwmeyers at toast.net
Tue Feb 19 10:11:57 EST 2008


On Tue, 19 Feb 2008 14:10:04 -0000, John wrote:

>Can someone explain to me, or point me in the right direction, to a good 
>explanation of the significance of the omission of the definite article 
>before theos in the NT [and especially in respect to John 1:18]?
>
>Thanks in advance
>Matt 
>
>---
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I share John's question, just in case anyone is replying to him
privately!

Thanks

Bob Meyers



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