[B-Greek] Omission of definite article before 'theos'?
Harold Holmyard
hholmyard3 at earthlink.net
Tue Feb 19 10:47:24 EST 2008
Hi, John and Bob,
> On Tue, 19 Feb 2008 14:10:04 -0000, John wrote:
>
>
>> Can someone explain to me, or point me in the right direction, to a good
>> explanation of the significance of the omission of the definite article
>> before theos in the NT [and especially in respect to John 1:18]?
>>
>> Thanks in advance
>> Matt
>>
>> ---
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>>
>
>
> I share John's question, just in case anyone is replying to him
> privately!
>
HH: One thought is that sometimes when QEOS ("God") is modified by hEIS
("one") it does not take the article (Mal 2:10 LXX; 1 Cor 8:6; Eph 4:6;
1 Tim 2:5). The number "one" has the same function of particularizing
that the definite article has, so it may make the article superfluous in
some cases. The word MONOGENHS is quite like hEIS in its force, and so
it may also be able to replace the definite article.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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