[B-Greek] John 1:42 petros or ?
Carl Conrad
cwconrad2 at mac.com
Tue Feb 19 16:00:19 EST 2008
On Feb 19, 2008, at 1:25 PM, George F Somsel wrote:
> Text
> ἤγαγεν αὐτὸν πρὸς τὸν Ἰησοῦν.
> ἐμβλέψας αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν· σὺ
> εἶ Σίμων ὁ υἱὸς Ἰωάννου, σὺ
> κληθήσῃ Κηφᾶς, ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται Πέτρος.
>
>
>
>
> HGAGEN AUTON PROS TON IHSOUN, EMBLEYAS AUTWi hO IHSOUS EIPEN, "SU EI
> SIMWN hO hUIOS IWANNOU, SU KLHQHSHi KHFAS hO hERMHNEUETAI PETROS.
>
> The relative clause ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται Πέτρος [hO
> hERMHNEUETAI PETROS] is equivalent to ὅ ἐστιν
> [hO ESTIN] which is covered by A.T. Robertson in his grammar
I'm not really quite convinced that hO\ hERMHNEUETAI is quite the same
as hO/ ESTIN. While the instances cited below all involve indication
of equivalence and explanation, I rather think that hERMHNEUETAI is
more directly concerned with translation/interpretation: not what
KHFAS "is" but what KHFAS "means."
> (c) Explanatory ὅ ἐστιν [hO ESTIN] and τοῦτʼ
> ἔστιν [TOUT' ESTIN]. A special idiom is the relative ὅ [hO]
> as an explanation (ὅ ἐστιν [hO ESTIN]) and the demonstrative
> τοῦτʼ ἔστι [TOUT' ESTI], which are both used without much
> regard to the gender (not to say number) of antecedent or predicate.
> Thus in Mk. 3:17 ὄνομα Βοανηργές, ὅ ἐστιν
> υἱοὶ βροντῆς [ONOMA BOANHRGES, hO ESTIN hUIOI BRONTHS];
> 12:42 λεπτὰ δύο ὅ ἐστιν κοδράντης [LEPTA
> DUO hO ESTIN KODRANTHS]; 15:16 τῆς αὐλῆς, ὅ ἐστιν
> πραιτώριον [THS AUTHS, hO ESTIN PRAITWRION]; 15:22
> Γολγοθὰν τόπον, ὅ ἐστιν κρανίου
> τόπος [GOLGOQAN TOPON, hO ESTIN KRANION TOPOS] (cf. Mt. 27:33);
> ῥαββεί, ὃ λέγεται [hRABBEI, hO LEGETAI] (Jo. 1:38);
> 1:42 Μεσσίαν ὅ ἐστιν [MESSIAN hO ESTIN]; Col. 3:14
> τὴν ἀγάπην, ὅ
> ἐστιν σύνδεσμος [THN AGAPHN, hO ESTIN SUNDESMOS]; Eph.
> 6:17 μάχαιραν, ὅ ἐστιν ῥῆμα θεοῦ
> [MAXAIRAN, hO ESTIN hRHMA QEOU]. Blass observes that it is only in
> the Apocalypse that this explanatory relative is assimilated to the
> antecedent or predicate, as λαμπάδες, ἄ εἰσιν τὰ
> πνεύματα [LAMPADES, hA EISIN TA PNEUMATA] (Rev. 4:5), but
> ὀφθαλμοὺς ἑπτά, οἵ εἰσιν τὰ
> πνεύματα [OFQALMOUS hEPTA, hOI EISIN TA PNEUMATA] (5:6). But
> it is otherwise with the ordinary relative, as ὁ ναὸς τοῦ
> θεοῦ, οἵτινές ἐστε ὑμεῖς [hO NAOS TOU QEOU,
> hOITINES ESTE hUMEIS] (1 Cor. 3:17); Φιλίππους, ἥτις
> ἐστὶν πρώτη πόλις [FILIPPOUS, hHTIS ESTIN DOCA
> hUMIN] (Ac. 16:12); ὑπὸ τῶν ἀντικειμένων,
> ἥτις ἐστὶν αὐτοῖς ἕνδειξις
> ἀπωλείας [hUPO TWN ANTIKEIMENWN, hHTIS
> ESTIN AUTOIS ENDEICIS APWLEIAS] (Ph. 1:28); ἐν ταῖς
> θλίψεσίν μου ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν, ἥτις ἐστὶν
> δόξα ὑμῶν [EN TAIS QLIYESIN MOU hUPER hUMWN, hHTIS ESTIN
> DOCA hUMWN] (Eph. 3:13). The use of τοῦτʼ ἔστιν [TOUT'
> ESTIN] is a common idiom in the later Greek (less so in the older)
> and is exactly equivalent to the Latin id est and has no regard to
> case, number or gender. So Ἐλωί—τοῦτʼ ἔστιν θεέ
> μου [ELWI–TOUT' ESTIN QEE MOU] (Mt. 27:46); τοῦτʼ
> ἔστιν τοὺς ἀδελφούς [TOUT' ESTIN TOUS ADELFOUS]
> (Heb. 7:5). Cf. Heb. 2:14; 9:11, etc. See further p. 399, and ch.
> XV, VII, (d), 10.
>
>
> Robertson, A. (1919; 2006). A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in
> the Light of Historical Research (411). Logos.
>
>
>
>
> Note also the appearances of the verb ἑρμηνεύω [hERMHNEUW]
>
> Jn 9.7
>
> καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ· ὕπαγε νίψαι εἰς
> τὴν κολυμβήθραν τοῦ Σιλωάμ (ὃ
> ἑρμηνεύεται ἀπεσταλμένος)
>
> KAI EIPEN AUTWi hUPAGE NIYAI EIS THN KOLUMBHQRAN TOU SILWAM (hO
> hERMHNEUETAI APESTALMENOS)
>
> Heb 7.2
>
> ᾧ καὶ δεκάτην ἀπὸ πάντων ἐμέρισεν
> Ἀβραάμ, πρῶτον μὲν ἑρμηνευόμενος
> βασιλεὺς δικαιοσύνης ἔπειτα δὲ καὶ
> βασιλεὺς Σαλήμ, ὅ ἐστιν βασιλεὺς
> εἰρήνης,
>
> hWi KAI DEKATHN APO PANTWN EMERISEN ABRAAM, PRWTON MEN
> hERMHNEUOMENOS BASILEUS DIKAIOSUNHS EPEITA DE KAI BASILEUS SALHM, hO
> ESTIN BASILEUS EIRHNHS.
In each of these too hERMHNEUETAI/hERMNEUOMENOS is used to focus on
translation/interpretation of a proper name into a Greek equivalent.
>
> ----- Original Message ----
> From: Gene Gardner <g_gardner1234 at yahoo.com>
> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Sent: Tuesday, February 19, 2008 8:20:52 AM
> Subject: [B-Greek] John 1:42 petros or ?
>
>
>
> In
> John
> 1:42,
> why
> is
> "stone"
> written
> in
> the
> declined
> form
> of
> petros?
>
>
> Thanks,
>
>
> Gene
> Gardner
>
>
>
>
>
>
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Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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