[B-Greek] Question about Luke 19:8
Dr. Don Wilkins
drdwilkins at verizon.net
Wed Jan 23 15:43:12 EST 2008
I'm not sure about the scope of George's explanation, so this is not
so much an objection to that as it is a comment about common ideas
regarding the condition that I have often observed in commentaries
and certain grammars. A first-class condition is often defined as
indicating the truth of the protasis because there are many passages
in which the writer or speaker poses a rhetorical condition to his
audience, using a protasis with which they have to agree due to their
own circumstances (e.g. 1 Thess. 4:14). The purpose is to compel them
to acknowledge the truth of the apodosis. But the condition itself
does not imply the truth of the protasis. There are quite a few first-
class conditions in the NT that are clearly untrue. Rom. 4:14 is a
good example if you accept the implied indicative in the protasis.
Other good examples have two first-class conditions or the
equivalent, where the writer presents two options, only one of which
can be true (e.g. Rom. 8:13; James 2:8-9). If "if" is replaced by
"since", as is often advocated, the result is a contradiction. Now
and then you see a general truth put in first-class form, and again,
"since" makes no sense (e.g. 1 Tim 3:1; 5:8).
I think this misconception about the so-called first-class condition
was the result of a combination of the idea that the indicative is
the mood of reality, and the impression that "if" = "since" due to
the many rhetorical first-class conditions in the NT. It is true that
the indicative is used to describe reality, but this is always from
the speaker's viewpoint, and there is no guarantee of truth. In fact,
most lies are told in the indicative, and unreal (second-class
conditions) also use the indicative. As for "if" = "since", that is
true as a matter of context and interpretation for rhetorical first-
class conditions, but not as a matter of grammar. In fact, "if" is
more powerful than "since" in rhetoricals. Rather than offering his
own opinion of his reader's condition by saying "since," the writer
instead forces the reader to examine himself by deciding whether the
protasis applies to him (or if he is worthy of it). If the reader
agrees, then he is obligated either to accept the apodosis as true or
to challenge the validity of the condition.
I think the true significance of first-class conditions is that they
refer to particular situations as opposed to general (as in Smyth),
though as I noted above they can sometimes be used as de facto
general statements.
Don Wilkins
On Jan 23, 2008, at 2:46 AM, George F Somsel wrote:
> I am confused by your reference to a "first class trip." It is, as
> has been indicated, a first class condition. A first class
> condition indicates that the condition is accepted as being true
> then sets forth the result.
>
> george
> gfsomsel
> … search for truth, hear truth,
> learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
> defend the truth till death.
>
> - Jan Hus
> _________
>
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