[B-Greek] LXX question, probably for Drs. Pietersma or Buth??

Mitch Larramore mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Sat Jul 12 23:14:46 EDT 2008


I was told that no "true" Jew ("true" Jew was his term) of the first century would have quoted from the LXX as the Christian-"Jews" did. A "true" Jew would have only quoted from a Hebrew text, according to this individual I heard speak last night. He further argued that the LXX was primarily used by Christians in the first century, which was another reason the "true" Jew avoided the LXX. To him, the LXX was "taken over as" the Christian's OT. I'm not qualified to comment on this but it seems to run counter to what little I have read in this area. That is certainly not the general impression I have, but I am open to further confirmation by noted authorities.

I don't think his argument concerned pre-Christian usage of the LXX. That is, I think he said the "true" Jews used the LXX before the time of Jesus. The impression I got was that the "exclusive" use of the LXX by Christians forced the Jews to abandon the Greek OT and thereby further separate themselves from the Christian-"Jews" by only authorizing and recognizing usage of and quotes from a Hebrew source.

Can you confirm or deny this?

Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas


      



More information about the B-Greek mailing list