[B-Greek] Diagraming 1 TI 2:12.

Rod Rogers rngrogers at embarqmail.com
Wed Jul 30 12:48:19 EDT 2008


Bobby,

I have brought your message back to the
B-Greek list. I think the group can see now
that you are interested in the Greek text and
that you will have a grasp of what their
comments might be. Thanks for your patience.

Bobby D. Gayton wrote:

The reason for my questions was that one
professor wrote, "People are perplexed
because didaskein ordinarily takes an
accusative object in Greek. But authentein
takes a genitive, and that is the case used
in verse 12. However, in an instance of two
infinitives occurring together, Greek uses
the case which fits the nearer infinitive,
and that is what is done here. Hence man is
the object of didaskein as well as of
authentein." Then the professor quotes
Herbert Weir Smyth, A Greek Grammar for
Colleges  says under two verbs with a common
object: "#1634. The case of an object common
to two verbs is generally that demanded by
the nearer."



RR writes:

As far as ANDROS being the object of
DIDASKEIN and AUQENTEIN I think you run into
the same problem that was encountered back in
Matthew 16:18 trying to find the antecedent
of AUTHS. I believe that if Paul wanted to
show ANDROS as the object of both infinities
he would have placed them a lot closer to
each other. In Matthew 16:18 it is not
necessary to throw the antecedent back to
PETRA. PETRA is the foundation of the
EKKLHSIA according to Ephesians 2:20 (I
believe). Therefore, I don't think you can
destroy the EKKLHSIA and leave the
foundation, PETRA in tact. 1 Timothy 2:12 is
similar, if you can't usurp authority over a
man, how can you teach him?

As it stands, I believe what Paul is saying
is that he does not permit a woman to teach
(in the EKKLHSIA according to 1 Corinthians
14:34,35) neither does he permit a woman to
exercise authority over a man. All this is
governed by what Paul DOES approve and that
is her keeping silent, hHSUCIA, and that all
she does, her ERGWN, she EPAGGELLOMENAIS
QEOSEBEIAN DI ERGWN AGAQWN.



rod rogers





----- Original Message -----
From: bdgayton at juno.com
To: rngrogers at embarqmail.com
Sent: Wednesday, July 30, 2008 9:34 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Diagraming 1 TI 2:12.


Thanks for your help.

I'll read the guidelines next time.

I've already diagram it in the Greek,
transliterated, and the ASV.

The reason for my questions was that one
professor wrote, "People are perplexed
because didaskein ordinarily takes an
accusative object in Greek. But authentein
takes a genitive, and that is the case used
in verse 12. However, in an instance of two
infinitives occurring together, Greek uses
the case which fits the nearer infinitive,
and that is what is done here. Hence man is
the object of didaskein as well as of
authentein." Then the professor quotes
Herbert Weir Smyth, A Greek Grammar for
Colleges  says under two verbs with a common
object: "#1634. The case of an object common
to two verbs is generally that demanded by
the nearer."

I do not the above book but I ordered it from
one of the members of B-Greek yesterday.

Bobby D. Gayton

Bobby D. Gayton





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