[B-Greek] Circumstantial Participle
Bryant J. Williams III
bjwvmw at com-pair.net
Wed Mar 12 00:15:50 EDT 2008
Dear List,
A question came up about the circumstantial participle especially with relation
to Eph 4:8-9 and how it would be understood by Greek speaker of the 1st century.
The circumstantial participle functions as the verb of a subordinate clause,
and, for this reason, we can translate it as a finite verb whose clause is
introduced by the subordinating temporal conjunction “when.”
DIO LEGEI,
ANABAAS EIS hUPSOS hHXHMALWTEUSEN AICHALMWSIAN,
EDWKEN DOMATA TOIS ANQRWPOIS.
TO DE ANEBH TI ESTIN, EI MH hOTI KAI KATEBH EIS TA KATWTERA [MERH] THS GHS;
Are we correct in assuming that the participle should be understood in this way?
Apparently, the apostle Paul so understood it, and verse 9 is the evidence that
he did so understand it. For, in verse 9, when referring back to this temporal
clause, Paul does so by the expression “τὸ … ἀνέβη,” using the finite form
(aor. act. ind. 3p. s.) of the verb! Apparently, Paul understood “ἀναβάς” to
mean virtually the same as “ὅτε ἀνέβη.” Since this also involves a quote
from the LXX of Psalm 68:18, what would the LXX experts also say about this?
I know some Greek scholars diagree about the circumstantial participle presence
at all, but what say you all and is there any other examples in the NT, LXX,
Church Fathers?
En Xristwi,
Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
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