[B-Greek] Matt 5.32 is part missing?
wmhboyd at aol.com
wmhboyd at aol.com
Sat Mar 15 15:30:10 EDT 2008
POIEI AUTHN MOIXEUQHNAI
"POIEI" being active and "MOIXEUQHNAI" being passive
This looks like he is doing this to her. Can it mean that he is making
her do something to herself? Would this be making the passive voice
verb serve as a middle voice verb? Are there any other examples of an
active/passive arrangement like this that makes the passive serve as a
middle?
I suggest an alternative that retains the usual force of the active and
passive voices. Consider:
In the passage he is the active perpetrator that puts the innocent
woman away; she is the passive victim of his action.
If she had been guilty of PORNEIA, he would NOT have made her to be an
adulterer by putting her away because she would have already done this
to herself by her PORNEIA.
However if she were innocent of PORNEIA and he put her away he would be
placing her in the legal and social position of one who had committed
adultery although she herself were innocent.
If my English teacher will forgive me; "He makes her to be adultered."
William (the Barbarian) Boyd
Greensboro, NC
-----Original Message-----
From: George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>
To: Eddie Mishoe <edmishoe at yahoo.com>; Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>;
Gerald Ford <sherlockplace at yahoo.com>
Cc: B Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sat, 15 Mar 2008 11:56 am
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Matt 5.32 is part missing?
This passage must quite naturally be considered from the standpoint of
what it
itself says, but it is interesting and instructive to compare it with
the
parallel passages. In Mt 5 the emphasis is entirely upon the result for
the
wife ποιεῖ αὐτὴν μοιχευθῆναι [POIEI AUTHN MOIXEUQHNAI] whereas in Mk 10
it has
mutual consequences (Lk is similar in this respect).
11 ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ καὶ γαμήσῃ ἄλλην μοιχᾶται ἐπʼ αὐτήν·
12 καὶ
ἐὰν αὐτὴ ἀπολύσασα τὸν ἄνδρα αὐτῆς γαμήσῃ ἄλλον μοιχᾶται.
11 hOS AN APOLUSH THN GUNAIKA AUTOU KAI GAMHSH ALLHN MOIXATAI EP'
AUTHN; 12 KAI
EAN AUTH APOLUSASA TON ANDRA AUTHS GAMHSH ALLON MOIXATAI
There are specific points to be noticed
1. In Mt only the consequence with regard to the wife is depicted --
she is
inevitably caused to commit adultery
2. In Mk there are consequences for both parties -- the one who
actually
brings about the divorce is guilty of IF THAT PARTY REMARRIES
3. The Mishnah cites no discussion of women divorcing their husbands
but only
of husbands divorcing their wives.
It would thus seem that although the general opinion is that Mt and Lk
made use
of Mk in the formation of their gospels, Mt and Lk seem to render more
faithfully the Jewish practice. It would thus seem that Mk is indicated
thereby
as coming from a different social mileau.
george
gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
_________
----- Original Message ----
From: Eddie Mishoe <edmishoe at yahoo.com>
To: Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com>; Gerald Ford
<sherlockplace at yahoo.com>
Cc: B Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, March 15, 2008 10:48:59 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Matt 5.32 is part missing?
--- Carl Conrad <cwconrad2 at mac.com> wrote:
> This question seems to me to ignore the fact that
> the clauses under
> discussion are generalizing and all-inclusive rather
> than specific:
> PAS hO APOLUWN = PAS hOS APOLUHi -- present
> subjunctive in the
> protasis; so also hOS EAN GAMHSHi -- aorist
> subjunctive in the
> protasis; each of the two clauses includes "any and
> everyone who ... "
Yes, and that is what makes for an interesting
question. Why does ANY wife under this circumstance
commit adultery on the basis of her husband divorcing
her for an unlawful reason? Since the exception clause
can not be invoked, she is not guilty of PORNEIA.
Without her committing PORNEIA, she commits adultery.
It appears she loses either way.
Eddie Mishoe
Pastor
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