[B-Greek] John 4:41: "PLEIOUS"

Harold Holmyard hholmyard3 at earthlink.net
Fri Apr 3 11:19:18 EDT 2009


Andrew,
> "KAI POLLWi PLEIOUS EPISTEUSAN DIA TON LOGON AUTOU" (John 4:41).
>
> Isn't "PLEIOUS" accusative? If so, how can it be the subject of "EPISTEUSAN"? Is it that the phrase "POLLWi PLEIOUS" is an idiomatic phrase, meaning something like 'by far the majority of them'?
>   

The form can also be a nominative form. See in BAGD or BADG under 
POLLUS. In BAGD it is under Roman numeral II and then further under 
Roman numeral 2, Arabic numeral 2, letter a. It can be an alternative 
form for PLEIONES as a contracted form.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




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